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If investigation shows that these members of the House of Lords were actually taking cash for influnence, can't they be prosecuted for that, and also, maybe for income tax evasion for not reporting the cash for influence? Maybe some UK editor can tell us Americans more about what might happen. The bit about the first suspension since 1642 is interesting, though. --DThomsen8 (talk) 15:44, 23 May 2009 (UTC)