Merge into proposal for moral rights
Isn't the following true: Author's rights licensed to a corporation in civil law countries expire a certain time after the original author's death (often 70 years), while corporate-owned copyright in common law countries expires a certain time after publication (again, often 70 years)?
This would make for a difference in expiration time. For example, currently there is a case in Germany (de:Zeitungszeugen), where the state government of Bavaria is trying to stop the republication of newspapers from 1933. The point of the project was to give a less filtered view of the Nazi takeover to modern audiences by reprinting both pro- and anti-Nazi newspapers from the period of the takeover. Bavaria claims to own the copyright of all materials published by Hitler, the Nazi Party, and its subdivisions. The argument is that, although 1933 is more than 70 years ago, some of the authors of those newspapers haven't been dead for 70 years yet. -- 184.108.40.206 (talk) 22:23, 29 January 2009 (UTC)
- I have no idea about civil law countries. In the U.S. publication was once the critical moment for purposes of copyright longevity, and today remains relevant. United States law cares about both the date of creation and publication, with a bias towards inducing publication.