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Is it really necessary to emphasize that the design of the theater allows for perfect acoustics without amplification? Could not one infer that a theater built in 400 BC would be devoid of amplification? Aureliusweb (talk) 04:01, 28 July 2008 (UTC)
i think the idea is that it is emphasizing the fact that the Greeks were able to make a theater with perfect acoustics, even outside. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 18.104.22.168 (talk) 00:51, 8 February 2009 (UTC)