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Are we really to believe that the majority of Germans were opposed to the Remilitarization of the Rhineland to the extent that the Nazis had to engage in voter intimidation? That seems a very dubious claim. Are we really believe that the majority of Germans actually supported the Treaty of Versailles in saying that no German military forces could enter the Rhineland, and so the Nazis had to engage in voter intimidation in order to get a yes vote? I agree that the figure of 99% approval is suspiciously high, but at the same time, everything in 1936 indicated that remilitarization of the Rhineland was extremely popular with huge crowds coming up all over Germany to celebrate. These celebrations involving hundreds of thousands of people do not look staged, and I have never read anything saying that these celebrations were. Certainly, if what was said about the demilitarized status of the Rhineland during the Weimar Republic would seem to indicate that the vast majority of Germans did not approved of a demilitarized Rhineland, and presumably things had not changed that much between 1933 to 1936. I think that claim that the Nazis had to intimidate voters into expressing approval of the remilitarization of the Rhineland is a very dubious claim that should be removed if no reference can be found to support it. --A.S. Brown (talk) 23:10, 2 June 2013 (UTC)[reply]
Note: The vote was AFTER the "Remilitarization of the Rhineland", so I doubt that it can be called "intimidation". 80.151.9.187 (talk) —Preceding undated comment added 11:23, 29 March 2019 (UTC)[reply]
