|WikiProject Writing systems||(Rated Start-class, Low-importance)|
Should there be a note on uppercase vs lowercase of the pronoun?
- Russian Я (ya) shouldn't be linked to this page. This was a mix-up from the fact that Я translates to the pronoun "I"
I think that "i" stands for (current) iteration, which is why "i" is used as a loop counter. --Joshtek 15:54, 19 August 2005 (UTC)
- I think thats part of the reason. also i believe that "i" was the first integer variable in fortran. Plugwash
- You seem to be correct: http://www.kirupa.com/forum/showthread.php?t=58108&page=1&pp=15 Joshtek
Why on earth does the "i" has a dot? I can understand the dot in Turkish, for distinguishing reasons, but how come there is the period on top also in latin and other languages, and for so many centuries? Ciacchi 16:48, 17 March 2006 (UTC)
- Oh, nevermind, I found it out. Ciacchi 16:06, 13 April 2006 (UTC)
Phil and Jim?
Um, are Phil and Jim people we should know? If so, please expand their significance in relation to using the word "I". Otherwise, please remove this bullet point from the Meanings of I section. Thanks Apatterno 05:00, 28 March 2006 (UTC)
Apple's use of the 'i'
Should there be a reference to the use of i in the market world? Such as iPod, iPhone, iRiver, iLife, iTunes etc. --Reverieuk 01:02, 13 January 2007 (UTC) icandy-pram, i agree there should be something along the lines of "....one of the few single letters which is copyrighted/trademarked...." or something, cos there seems to be a lot of "i" products around - not just apple.
When did the short i as in "bill" evolve?
When did the short i as in "bill" evolve? Does anybody know. Imhotep is the earliest name I know of with the short I sound, so maybe it is as old as written language? —The preceding unsigned comment was added by TedHuntington (talk • contribs) 22:23, 29 March 2007 (UTC).
- The premise of this question seems to be wrong. We can speak about how the English came to have a short close front unrounded vowel or rather a near-close near-front unrounded vowel. I think this happened as Proto-Germanic evolved. The question, when did this sound appear in any language is un-answerable, but probably humans have been making this sound and using it in their language for as long as the language has existed and the shape of the human mouth has been in the form it is. It would thus be a lot older than written language. Stefán 23:52, 29 March 2007 (UTC)
Yes, I guess that is my question: when did the short-i as in "dill" evolve in human language. We can certainly trace the short-a as in "cat", and the a in "ape" to English since no other language has them. So you are basically stating that, to your knowledge, native people still speak the short-i in "dill" when saying the most ancient words of written history, such as the name "Imhotep"? Perhaps that is about the best any human can do today for the origins of the short-i in "dill". We can say too that the letters that sound the same probably evolved together. For example, b,d,g,k,p,t are all related and l,m,n,r are all related and may have been created around the same time during evolution. TedHuntington 00:01, 6 April 2007 (UTC)
- This question still seems bizarre. Firstly, I can't make out if you're asking about eg. the existence of [ɪ] specifically in "dill" etc, or in any word in any language whatsoever. Also, we cannot tell what the first spoken languages sounded like, or when did some specific speech sound first appear, but there is no reason to suspect any to be particularly new. The physical features required for speech have existed for tens of thousands of years, but historical linguistics is able to probe the past only to the time-depth of about ten thousand years with any reliability, and even that ten thousand years is a lot; it is sufficient for virtually any sound to change into any other sound.
- As an aside, it doesn't hold that "no other language has the a sounds of 'ape' or 'cat'". Finnish, for instance, has the latter and it seems that it has preserved it all the way from Proto-Uralic, some 6,000 years ago at least (while its latest English incarnation is only a few centuries old). Similarly, all the vowels in "Imhotep" are English adaptations and do not reflect actual Egyptian pronunciation (which is largely unclear, but do see Egyptian language#Phonology). --Trɔpʏliʊm • blah 22:03, 18 August 2008 (UTC)
- We also don't know exactly how any given word was pronounced thousands of years ago (though for some features there is useful indirect evidence). English-speakers pronounce Imhotep with [ɪ] because it comes naturally to us, not because he did. —Tamfang (talk) 06:41, 11 July 2011 (UTC)
Its use in Mathematics
Why is there no mention of the letter "i" as a mathematical symbol for the square root of minus 1? I put this fact on the page entitled "I" but someone has deleted it. Would the person who did that please explain why on this discussion page A.S.A.P. Paggle
- Each letter has numerous uses as a symbol; they are listed at I (disambiguation) because it would be clutter to list them all in I. —Tamfang (talk) 06:44, 11 July 2011 (UTC)
Why the hell do people always put up bs "related" hierogrlyphs. The arm hieroglyph is an ayin - not related to the yodh. In fact, hieroglyphs has a related glyph - the yodh! Why isn't that there?220.127.116.11 (talk) 00:06, 10 April 2008 (UTC)
Capitalisation of the letter I in the English language
Should there not be a part emphasising the strange way we capitalise the letter I in the English language when referring to ourselves? The article mentions the Turkish capital and dotted i versions, so i don't see why there isn't a section about the English differences. There's also a lot of reasoning behind it (which i still don't understand) which could be interesting to add to the article. For example, some sources ( http://www.alt-usage-english.org/excerpts/fxwhyisi.html ) say it's used to avoid misreading, which seems strange given the fact that a capital I commonly looks like an uncapped L(i = I - l = L). Other sources say it's akin to capitalising the first letter of a name when referring to another, such as "Tom", though this doesn't make much sense since we don't capitalise the M in me, nor the W in we. -Evaristé93 (talk) 04:28, 23 July 2011 (UTC)
- This article is about the letter, not the word. Take it to I (pronoun)#Capitalization. —Tamfang (talk) 19:25, 1 August 2011 (UTC)