Talk:Legend tripping

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Former featured article candidateLegend tripping is a former featured article candidate. Please view the links under Article milestones below to see why the nomination failed. For older candidates, please check the archive.
Article milestones
DateProcessResult
May 14, 2004Featured article candidateNot promoted

older entries[edit]

an unhallowed nocturnal pilgrimage What is an unhallowed pilgrimage? What would a hallowed pilgrimage be? Leopoldbloom 21:31, 21 Apr 2004 (UTC)

Perhaps a sanctioned religious pilgrimage would be a hallowed pilgrimage. heidimo 00:29, 23 Apr 2004 (UTC)

Would Stephen King's "The Body" (the one made into the movie Stand By Me) count? Rather unusually for King, there's no suggestion that the visit is either viewed as, or actually has, any supernatural import, but the connection still seems strong. -- Antaeus Feldspar 19:01, 26 Sep 2004 (UTC)

Yes, I'd say that Stephen King's "The Body" is an example of this sort of adolescent behavior. --BAW 22:13, 22 March 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Hopiakuta 04:02, 12 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Tam Li[edit]

This article begins by stating that "legend tripping" is an American custom. It then references Mark Twain. It then introduces the Tam Lin legend. Tam Lin according to his WP page is a figure from a Scottish legend. This is a problem insofar as we have moved from the United States to Scotland with no warning or explanation. The "change of venue" needs to be made explicit and better tied in with the structure of the article, I should think. Is the idea that Twain's work is based on the Scottish legend? Or that the American custom is based on the Scottish custom? Or merely that there are folk tales about customs similiar to the American custom which is the subject of this article? Hi There 12:50, 31 October 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Not solely in the USA, surely?[edit]

The phrase "in the folklore of the United States" puzzles me somewhat. Is it meant to imply that "legend tripping" is a term used only in US folklore research, or that "legend tripping" is solely a US phenomenon? Whichever is the case, I think the introduction needs rewriting to remove the ambiguity. Kay Dekker (talk) 16:56, 30 December 2007 (UTC)[reply]

NPOV tag[edit]

An NPOV tag was installed in May 2008, and it says to refer to the discussion on this page, and not to remove the tag until the issue is resolved. However, there is no discussion of neutrality here, and nothing after the date of the tag -- I'm guessing it has to do with the US-centric orientation of the article? I'll try to work on that, but if somebody knows of other POV issues here, please advise. Otherwise, I'll simply assume that I've correctly identified the issue, and remove the tag when it's done. DavidOaks (talk) 14:33, 14 July 2008 (UTC)[reply]

Did it. Please feel free to re-install the NPOV tag if there were issues beyond the US-centricity. I also put in a substantial number of citations. DavidOaks (talk) 15:41, 14 July 2008 (UTC)[reply]

Ostensive definition coined by Eco??[edit]

I thought Wittgenstein used the phrase in Philosophical Investigations. And I didn't get the impression that he was coining a phrase there. I'm adding a [citation needed] tag... Solemnavalanche (talk) 22:37, 30 July 2008 (UTC)[reply]

Ok, so that's a bit confusing, I just realized, because there is a footnote right there that cites Eco. But I still don't think he coined it. Solemnavalanche (talk) 22:39, 30 July 2008 (UTC)[reply]
I agree. I also know that Quine uses the term in his paper, "Two Dogmas of Empiricism", which was published in 1956. I have yet to find the original publishing date for the work by Eco (not the translation of it), but will continue researching and will attempt to clear this up.Threepenpals (talk) 23:39, 5 January 2009 (UTC)[reply]
Looked into it a bit more, and it appears that the work by Eco was published in 1976. I think I was mistaken in mentioning the above work by Quine; however, his paper, "Identity, Ostension, and Hypostasis", was published in The Journal of Philosophy on Oct 26th 1950. Given this, it cannot be the case that 'definition by ostension' was coined by him. I am unsure of how much this impacts this article; so, I would prefer that the original author clarify the relevant ambiguous section.Threepenpals (talk) 00:02, 6 January 2009 (UTC)[reply]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ostensive_definition sez: John Passmore tells us that the term was first defined by the British logician William Ernest Johnson (1858-1931):

   "His neologisms, as rarely happens, have won wide acceptance: such phrases as “ostensive definition”, such contrasts as those between ... “determinates” and “determinables”, “continuants” and “occurrents”, are now familiar in philosophical literature" (Passmore 1966, p. 344).

...I'm just going to remove a chunk of that clever second paragraph until someone figures all that out. —Preceding unsigned comment added by Kapuchinski (talkcontribs) 03:50, 30 October 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Article has an insulting tone[edit]

Anyone else notice that repeatedly hammering the word "adolescent" into the reader gives this article an insulting tone, as if the article is trying to convince the reader that this is childish behavior? I'd hate to just slap a Neutrality Is Disputed label, but well, I'm disputing this article's neutrality. 71.115.53.205 (talk) 20:48, 25 January 2011 (UTC)[reply]

recent edits[edit]

DreamGuy, you put a refimprove tag on; can you identify the spots you think need refs, please, using [citation needed] tags? Also, you removed external links from captions -- I wasn't aware that this is a problem, and the logic isn't immediately obvious to me -- could you point me to the relevant policy? Thanks, DavidOaks (talk) 05:36, 21 February 2010 (UTC)[reply]

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