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unconfirmed freely welcomed bias statement being allowed into this article: "The reign of Aurangzeb saw the enforcement of strict Muslim fundamentalism which caused rebellions among the Sikhs and Hindus."
a) Shah Alam II took part in the Battle of Buxar along with the Nawab of Oudh and titular Nawab of Bengal against the British in 1764.
b) they hate people like you
c) In 1771, the Marathas re-took Delhi and in 1772, Maratha General Mahadaji Shinde escorted Shah Alam II to Delhi and reinserted him on the throne under the protection of the Marathas. Shah Alam II was a puppet at the hands of the Marathas and his authority was only confined to the city of Delhi. He agreed to all the terms and conditions of the Marathas.
d) In 1788, a Pathan feudal lord named Ghulam Kadir took over Delhi suddenly and blinded him. However, Marathas again intervened, defeated Ghulam Kadir’s army and acted as the protectors of the throne.
e) Since then, Marathas protected him fully till his death. But, he was not at all a ruler with authority. He could not even protect himself from enemies and was living at the mercy of the Marathas. None outside the city of Delhi paid tax to him. He is a perfect example of a de jure ruler, not an effective one.
I am just giving a source with link. One can pick up any book on this period and check the authenticity of the facts given. Thank you.
Semi-protected edit request on 30 August 2014
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Under "List of Mughal Emperors" the first listed is Babar, and Babar is described as "Was a direct descendant of Genghis Khan through Timur and was the founder of the Mughal Empire" -- this is incorrect, as Timur was not a descendant of Genghis Khan. Babar was related to Genghis Khan through his mother. Suggest this be changed to "Babar was related to Timur through his father, and Genghis Khan through his mother..." -- see the Wiki page on Babar for reference of Babar's lineage.