Talk:Persian language

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Agglutination[edit]

Persian is not an Agglutinative language, as this article claims. Indo-European languages are not agglutinative. They may use, to some degree, agglutinative aspects (as Persian does), but - by definition - Persian is not agglutinative. The sources used to support this claim are either not used properly or they represent minority oppinions and not the mainstream. --Lysozym (talk) 09:09, 21 April 2014 (UTC)

Tajik text?[edit]

In the section "Examples", we have the sentence "Please note that the Tajik text is different from that of the Iranian Persian." Can someone please verify whether this is correct? (An editor had added a sentence asserting that the text is actually the same; in that case, the sentence asserting a difference should be removed.) Thanks, JBL (talk) 03:19, 27 May 2014 (UTC)

User Negahbaan has kindly confirmed that the text is the same, and so I have removed the erroneous sentence. --JBL (talk) 15:20, 27 May 2014 (UTC)

Spread of Persian in Central Asia[edit]

http://books.google.com/books?id=I3mVUEzm8xMC&pg=PA127#v=onepage&q&f=false

http://books.google.com/books?id=qcPZ1k65pqkC&pg=PA255#v=onepage&q&f=false

http://books.google.com/books?id=3coojMwTKU8C&pg=PA5#v=onepage&q&f=false

Rajmaan (talk) 03:25, 13 July 2014 (UTC)

Parsī or Farsī?[edit]

This article is well done, for there are no evident historical misunderstandings to be found. Nevertheless, I'd like to add some common misinterpretations concerning the Arabs' “conquest” of the ancient Sasanian Empire, mostly expressed by Iranian and other nationalists who had borrowed certain approaches to history, for instance blaming “the Arabs” for everything that went wrong in that area.
It seems to be an old saying that “the Arabs”, especially their script, do not own the sound “p”, and therefore, after the so-called “conquest” of the Sasanian Empire, “they” changed all former Persian names with a “p” into “f”. So, they assume, it became Farsī (فارسي) instead of Pārsī (پارسي) and Iṣfahān instead of Ispahān, for instance. But there is this question: Why have some words survived until today, like pedar (پدر), panǧ (پنج), or paḏīroftan (پذيرفتن)? Until now I couldn't find any answer.
In Arabic you still find, for instance, the word Iṣbahān (اصبهان) which means that “the Arabs” changed the p-sound into a b-sound, as well. Iṣbahān, for instance, is the name for a Moroccan/Andalusian musical mode (ṭab‘/طبع), as well. And there is this famous medieval musician and musicologist called al-Iṣbahānī (or, as well, al-Iṣfahānī (see both forms in this article!)
My supposition is based on the fact that at that period many languages were in a state of sound-changing. There are examples of Indo-European languages like Father, in Icelandic Fadhir, in German Vater (pronounced “Fater”). But all of these words correspond with Latin pater, Greek patéras, Sanskrit pitar, and last but not least Persian pedar. Similarly there is the word for five (in English), fünf (in German), pet (in Eastern European languages), pente (in Greek), and last but not least panǧ in Persian. All these examples show very easily how the f and p sounds are kind of exchangeable. And therefore “the Arabs” cannot be blamed for replacing the p into f.
Not to forget: “The Arabs” were just a handful of beduines in “conquering” a huge empire! This empire was extremely weakened by itself, for there were the uprisings of several social movements against the strict Zoroastrian and political hierarchy in the 5th and 6th century CE (the Mazdaki movement, for instance), and, by the way, there were these permanent wars with the Eastern Roman Empire. All of these elements were the real cause of the Sasanian Empire's collapse. “The Arabs” just took advantage of the entire situation.
Last but not least: The Arab script is the developped derivation of the old Aramaic script which was the official script in the Sasanian period. Therefore the orthography is nearly the same.--Imruz (talk) 17:30, 15 September 2014 (UTC)