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Discussion of charity in the UK is too simple
For the following statement:
"There, Muslims, on average, gave $567, compared to $412 for Jews, $308 for Protestants, $272 for Catholics and $177 for atheists."
There is only a dollar amount of wealth given and no discussion about factors that would change this. The article seems to assert that the dollar amounts imply more charity on behalf of certain groups and are caused by religion or irreligion. What if certain groups simply earn more more (and so can afford to donate more)? What if factors correlating with religion but not related to religion affect donation rates? For example, suppose recent immigrants give more or less money.
This is interesting information but maybe should not be at the top of the page (because it's complicated and can't be explained in one sentence) and might need more discussion. It also seems a bit out of place at the top of the page. Maybe we can move this sentence and add a link to a specific page that discusses the issue of religion and charity in more depth?
This issue is related to the previous subject of how atheism is not a religion but is distinct. I feel regardless of that discussion that this sentence needs more work.
Thank you for reading my thoughts.
Confused in one sentence
- @Jerome Charles Potts:Looks like a typo to me, maybe be bold and change it. Jonpatterns (talk) 10:56, 11 March 2014 (UTC)
Comparison of people's charity by belief
@Themoother:@184.108.40.206:I've gone ahead and moved the paragraph comparing the amount given by each religion, seems out of place in the lead. I could not find the original survey on ICM website. The comparison of Islamic giving Vs total humanitarian giving may be problematic - isn't some of the aid given by Muslims humanitarian? Jonpatterns (talk) 10:56, 11 March 2014 (UTC)
The article states that it is obligatory to give Zakat but it doesn't say which countries. Maybe this could a good starting point? http://moneyjihad.wordpress.com/2010/08/09/zakat-by-country/