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I am disputing the sentece about Polish occupation of Zaolzie The behaviour of the new Polish authorities was different but similar in nature to that of the Czech ones before 1938. Prior to Polish occupation the Polish had same rights as the Czechs did, they national organisations were present and so were they able to use their language etc. Comparing forcible polonisation and expulsion of Czechs and Germans to the status Polish minority had in Czechoslovakia is a bit too harsh. Cimmerian praetor (talk) 19:25, 20 May 2010 (UTC)
You are right both stances were different and that's what the sentence says. "similar in nature" refers to the goal of both authorities, which was the cultural assimilation of the other ethnicity. The new Polish authorities were more violent and forcing in pursuing the idea of Polonization, than the Czech authorities pursuing the idea of Czechization. So while the comparison is a bit too harsh, as you pointed out, the underlying principle of dealing with the other ethnicity, remains very similar. - Darwinek (talk) 21:37, 20 May 2010 (UTC)