Is the definition of a polynomial be reducible over the integers the only one. For instance in Stewart's Galois Theory, Third Edition (Definition 3.10) he writes
"A polynomial over a subring R of C is reducible if it is a product of two polynomials over R of smaller degree. Otherwise it is irreducible."
He then goes on to give an example of a polynomial that is irreducible over Z(t) of 6t+3=3(2t+1). This was the basis for the change that I made on the irreducible polynomial page that you reverted back. If different books use different definitions then shouldn't this be included in the article. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Uwhoff (talk • contribs) 20:18, 17 November 2013 (UTC)
- I have answered in Talk:Irreducible polynomial#Irreducibility aver the integers. However, I did not answered about this particular example. Are you sure that he wrote "the polynomial 6t+3=3(2t+1) is irreducible over Z[t]" (which is incorrect) and not "the polynomial 6t+3=3(2t+1) (defined) over Z[t] is irreducible over Q[t]" or "the polynomial 6t+3=3(2t+1) (defined) over Z[t] is irreducible" (which are both correct, if one considers only the irreducibility over a field). The place of "over" is essential. D.Lazard (talk) 14:30, 18 November 2013 (UTC)
"(Reverted good faith edits by Jtle515 (talk): Translating the latin ablatif as "by" is not sourced and WP:OR. (TW))"
- It is not the knowledge of Latin which is original research, but the choice of translating ablatif, in this particular case, by "by". This choice is controversial. D.Lazard (talk) 10:18, 23 November 2013 (UTC)
But you revert my edits.
What do you think about?