Talk:Avrami equation

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Is the integration done properly? i dont think so, can someone double check this? Currently it states that the integration of dVb=Vbe(V-Vb) equals ln(1-y)=Vbe/V. I think it should equal ln(1-Y)=Vbe. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 192.91.173.42 (talk) 02:00, 11 February 2009 (UTC)

June 09, 2009 The equations and integration are correct now. I think the integration currently stated is right. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 59.77.32.151 (talk) 13:57, 26 September 2010 (UTC)

For better understanding it maybe would be nice to use $\log$ instead of $\ln$ an distinguish by this between the inversion of $\exp()$ and the logarithmic plotting.

May I suggest to detail/ discuss the 'assumptions and simplifications', maybe in a new section? Fdeneuve (talk) 23:39, 4 October 2012 (UTC)