Talk:King of Kings

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Jewism? christianism? zionist ambitions? This article seems to need a good cleanup. If nobody else does it, I'll do it within the week. GregChant 18:46, 1 October 2005 (UTC)

  • As far as the Judeo-christian ~subsection is concerned, I say: please do give it a go, I'm not entirely happy with it as it is! Fastifex 08:41, 3 October 2005 (UTC)
    • Yeah, and what's up with that "jewism" term? That sounds racist to me. --SaulPerdomo 06:14, 30 October 2005 (UTC)

The stuff about "messianistic traditions" and "Zionist ambitions" did not make any sense whatsoever. The reason I said that I clarified it is becuase I was thinking that the main point of that section was to point out that the phrase King of Kings was used in reference to Christ in the New Testatment. The other stuff seemed to detract from that. El Cubano 20:00, 26 April 2006 (UTC)

Someone please explain the "messianistic traditions" and "Zionist ambitions" section. It seriously doesn't make any sense. If it is that important, why is there nothing about Muslims and their "islamist traditions" and th/Users/student/Desktop/Late Antiquity.pageseir own ambitions? Also, what are the verse references where Jesus says his realm is of this earth. Where does he a preach a "moral" kingdom? This section has an anti-Semitic feel to it and I think it may need to be tagged, POV, revised, cited, or removed. El Cubano 10:40, 27 April 2006 (UTC)

One quick note, just for clarification. In many languages (including Hebrew), there is no superlative. That is, there is no grammatical construction that simply means "greatest," "tallest," or, we might say, "kingliest." The way that these ideas are portrayed, then, is "great of the greats," "tall of the tall ones," or "king of kings." Thus, at least in that context (and probably in many other contexts), the origin of the term "king of kings" is not actually a king ruling over vassal states, but simply the Hebrew way of expressing the superlative. —Preceding unsigned comment added by Jacobjjohansen (talkcontribs) 20:18, 20 June 2009 (UTC)


The article states that King of Kings is "conventionally (usually inaccurately) rendered as Emperor." Well, that would depend greatly on one's specific definition of the word Emperor, and the connotations that go along with it, right? Certainly, in the East Asian context, the terms used to refer to Emperors (皇帝, 天子, 天皇) and Kings (国王) are very important to the hierarchy of diplomatic relations, etc, and referring to a king as emperor or vice versa was a very big deal; the Japanese shogunate had to invent the term taikun (大君) in order to represent the shogun's power while definitively standing outside the Sino-centric system of Emperor-King (lord-tributary/submissive vassal) relationships. Also consider the fact that many Emperors throughout history were not imperialistic and did not maintain empires of the scale or scope of the Roman, Mongol, British, or Spanish ones, and that many European overseas empires, such as the British one, still had a King or Queen, not an Emperor.

In the European context, and more to the point in the global context as a whole, I really don't think it's fair to make this sort of blanket statement about what "Emperor" and "King of Kings" can or cannot denote (or connote) in all situations. Right? LordAmeth 13:09, 14 March 2007 (UTC)

Additional citations[edit]

Why and where does this article need additional citations for verification? What references does it need and how should they be added? Hyacinth (talk) 01:14, 29 July 2012 (UTC)