Talk:Lateralization of brain function

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A lot of work is needed to improve this article[edit]

This is the second paragraph of the article:

"Lateralization of brain structures is based on general trends expressed in healthy patients; however, there are numerous counterexamples to each generalization. Each human’s brain develops differently leading to unique lateralization in individuals. This is different from specialization as lateralization refers only to the function of one structure divided between two hemispheres. Specialization is much easier to observe as a trend since it has a stronger anthropological history. The best example of an established lateralization is that of Broca's and Wernicke's areas where both are often found exclusively on the left hemisphere. These areas frequently correspond to handedness however, meaning the localization of these areas is regularly found on the hemisphere corresponding to the dominant hand (anatomically on the opposite side). Function lateralization such as semantics, intonation, accentuation, prosody, etc. has since been called into question and largely been found to have a neuronal basis in both hemispheres. Another example is that each hemisphere in the brain tends to represent one side of the body. In the cerebellum this is the same bodyside, but in the forebrain this is predominantly the contralateral side."

I find this to be completely impossible to understand.

In the phrase "there are numerous counterexamples to each generalization": Which generalization does this refer to? Nobody knows.

In the sentence "Each human’s brain develops differently leading to unique lateralization in individuals": Is this saying that all lateralizations are idiosyncratic? Really? So there are no generalizations that apply to almost all individuals, or at least almost all right-handed individuals? The article should be clear about what it is saying.

In the sentence "This is different from specialization as lateralization refers only to the function of one structure divided between two hemispheres": And "specialization means what?

In the sentence "Function lateralization such as semantics, intonation, accentuation, prosody, etc. has since been called into question and largely been found to have a neuronal basis in both hemispheres." But the first sentence of the entire article states: "The lateralization of brain function is the tendency for some neural functions or cognitive processes to be more dominant in one hemisphere than the other." This requires only greater dominance in one hemisphere than the other. So the phrase "largely been found to have a neuronal basis in both hemispheres" is irrelevant to refuting lateralization, since nothing is said about dominance one way or the other.

The last two sentences are: "Another example is that each hemisphere in the brain tends to represent one side of the body. In the cerebellum this is the same bodyside, but in the forebrain this is predominantly the contralateral side." The second sentence is an example of where the first sentence is false. Why???