Talk:Universally measurable set
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So it seems I goofed in my first definition; looking around, everyone seems to impose some finiteness condition on the measure. Does this actually matter? Can someone cook up a universally measurable set of reals that's not measurable with respect to, say, Hausdorff measure of dimension 1/2 ? --Trovatore 16:27, 3 October 2005 (UTC)
- You asked me to comment on this. Unfortunately, my set theoretic knowledge is rather limited. In particular, I don't know what Polish spaces or analytic sets are. So, can't help much. Oleg Alexandrov 03:55, 4 October 2005 (UTC)
Some such A ?
In the section "Example contrasting with Lebesgue measureability", it says that "Thus we can think of A as a subset of the interval [0,1], and evaluate its Lebesgue measure". Later is says "there are some such A without a well defined Lebesgue measure". It is unclear whether the "some such A" in the second statement refers to a set not in 2^omega or whether the first statement should have said "attempt to evaluate its Lebesgue measure".