Edits to Crucifixion of Jesus
I have reverted two of your edits. The first, which changed the instances of "veil" to "curtain", I changed back, and linked it to the specific section of the veil article that deals with the temple veil. In the second, you had inexplicably moved a comma which completely changes the meaning of the verse. Please see this comparison of five of the most widely used and most trusted English translations available today (NIV, NASB, NLT, ESV, and NKJV). HokieRNB 20:24, 27 May 2008 (UTC)
In my studies of the Bible, and of ancient Greek, Matthew 27:51, Mark 15:38, Luke 23:45 the Greek word καταπετασμα is used as the object being torn/rent in two. It's for the most part translated as "curtain", whereas veil is a more modern rendering of the word (modern as in King Jame's time to now).
As for the comma, it was not moved by mistake. Because if you think of what Jesus said to the thief ("Truly, I say to you, today you will be with me in Paradise.") as written in NIV, NASB, NLT, ESV, and NKJV, it would contradict what actually happened after he died.
Luke 24:7 - "the Son of Man must be delivered into the hands of sinful men and be crucified and on the third day rise."
Acts 1:3 - "He presented himself alive to them after his suffering by many proofs, appearing to them during forty days and speaking about the kingdom of God."
Jesus lay in the tomb for three days, then for 40 days after his rising, he appeared to the other disciples and Mary. So how can Jesus promise the thief they'll be in paradise together the day they died, but Jesus did not actually ascend to heaven until 40+ days later?