Talk:Plebeian council

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Wiki Education Foundation-supported course assignment[edit]

This article was the subject of a Wiki Education Foundation-supported course assignment, between 6 January 2020 and 12 April 2020. Further details are available on the course page. Student editor(s): KJ18818. Peer reviewers: Sizer25, Hannahhelm.

Above undated message substituted from Template:Dashboard.wikiedu.org assignment by PrimeBOT (talk) 06:47, 17 January 2022 (UTC)[reply]

Curia Hostilia[edit]

'The well of the Comitia' is mentioned in this article as the place where the Plebian Council met. What was this place? I have seen it referenced in several books but cannot find out anything about it. Specifically, was it merely a flat pavement area in the vicinity between the Rostra and the Curia Hostilia, or was it actually an excavated pit or a large opening of some kind lined with seating levels? Or what? Answers very much appreciated, this has been bothering me for many years! 69.124.22.139 08:20, 8 March 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Changes to article[edit]

I have just completed some major modifications to this article. RomanHistorian (talk) 10:10, 2 August 2008 (UTC)[reply]

Lex Hortensia confusion[edit]

"To end this movement, a plebeian dictator (Quintus Hortensius) was appointed, who ultimately passed a law called the "Hortensian Law" (lex Hortensia). The most significant component of this law was its termination of the requirement that auctoritas patrum be obtained before any bill could be considered by the Plebeian Council.[8] In this way the law removed from the patrician senators their final check over the Plebeian Council.[9] The lex Hortensia, however, should not be viewed as the final triumph of democracy over aristocracy.[9] Close relations between the plebeian tribunes and the senate meant that the senate could still exercise a great degree of control over the Plebeian Council. Thus, the ultimate significance of this law was that it robbed the patricians of their final weapon over the plebeians.[9] This ended the Conflict of the Orders, and brought the plebeians to a level of full political equality with the patricians."

This portion, especially the bold sentences, is confusing. Did the law do what was intended or didn't it? Did it empower the plebs or were they still subject to control by the Patricians? Could someone who has more knowledge help?InformationvsInjustice (talk) 05:34, 12 October 2016 (UTC)[reply]

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