Talk:Zamindar

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Hindu or Muslim?

So it says "As most zamindars were Hindus, the Muslim peasantry, who formed the majority of the population in the countryside, was vehemently against zamindars." But where is a source to support this? I have been researching this and have been unable to find a definitive source saying that it was either mostly Muslim or Hindu, or a mix. What supports this? --98.169.83.230 (talk) 18:02, 27 August 2008 (UTC)[reply]

Zamindari confused with Jagirdari?

This article confuses Zamindari with Jagirdari 68.249.31.22 16:48, 22 Mar 2005 (UTC)

Zamindari and Jagirdari systems are same, both were for the revenue collection. In Madhya Pradesh state it was called Zamindari system but in Rajasthan state it was called Jagirdari system. burdak 07:03, 21 July 2005 (UTC)[reply]

It should be noted, however, that jagir means fief, whereas zamin merely means land. Any landowner can be called a zamindar, but only a fiefholder is a jagirdar. Zamindari literally means "land-ownership" in Urdu/Hindustani/Persian. The article makes it seem as if its primary meaning is that of a system of feudalistic fiefholding.

"When I use a word," Humpty Dumpty said, in rather a scornful tone, "it means just what I choose it to mean -- neither more nor less." This discussion does not clarify the changes in meaning which occur in various regions and periods of time. It skirts one of the central issues in Asian history and historiography: systems of land tenure, in which Zemindars played an important but varying role. Regardless of their etymology, the words describe institutions, or habitual practices, which are always in flux in response to social circumstances. Cf. Sir Henry Maine, Ancient Law and Early History of Institutions.

Specifically, a Zamindar or Zemindar was not merely a landowner or owner in fee simple, nor simply a tax collector. Despite important regional differences, land tenure was at the pleasure of the government in both British and Indian law, as it was under the Mughals. "The State as Landowner" in de Laveleye, Primitive Property, ch. 24. A Zamindar had varying responsibilities for arbitration/adjudication of conflicts, collection and remittance of taxes to the government, maintaining law and order, roads, water collection and drainage, and the postal system. See the articles on the Permanent Settlement and Gobindram Mitter. Many of these functions existed long before the British intervention.

The statement about illiteracy among government officials is unsupported by any factual citation. It confuses literacy with issues of Anglicization of a Persian word; such differences of Anglicized spelling occur everywhere, and differences are not necessarily an indication of illiteracy.Fconaway 20:02, 7 April 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Media

Is it relevant to mention things like Devdas Mukherjee's family in the novel were Zamindars? Or, are there other important examples? gren グレン 04:41, 20 July 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Elaborate please

This is not to undermine your work; but I read the article several times and I still don't understand exactly how it works, least of all how it works today in Pakistan.

I think it needs a little more elaboration. Thanks.

Wadera and Lambardar

I saw that in the article there were written Wadara and Labardar, I corrected to the spellings Wadera and Lambardar. For example, a part of the Sindhi ancestors of Benazir Bhutto from her father's side were Wadera. Desiphral-देसीफ्राल 10:33, 4 September 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Evident, really?

Section British era, second para:

The similarities to medieval feudalism are evident.

No, they aren't! In my eyes, this British era Zamindari system seems much more like the Roman Empire tax collection system. Similarities to medieval feudalism are very far from evident, since the land lords of feudalism could choose to keep all money for themselves and instead erect a local military to fulfill the same service. ... said: Rursus (bork²) 15:49, 17 February 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Dubious

Zamindar from zimmi? Not according to the American Heritage Dictionary. — The Man in Question (gesprec) · (forðung) 20:44, 14 August 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Bangladesh

No the law didnt take effect in the 70s. The zamindari system was abolished in the 50s by the east pakistan government. Bangladesh consitution does not have a clause relating to land owenership of geovernment/individual. Some one please change this.