Talk:Always already

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Should the phrase "always already" be marked off in quotation marks to clarify the use-mention distinction? (For instance, as I have done in this sentence.) The first sentence after the title of the article is confusing otherwise because I read it as actually using the phrase "always already" instead of mentioning it. However, given the use of scare quotes in other parts of the entry, the quotation marks might be confusing in a different way.

Historical use[edit]

The Historical Use section claims that Kant uses the term in the Critique of Pure Reason. I have searched a number of editions of that book and the term is not used in any English translation I have yet come across. Unless a reference can be provided to a specific translation/edition, that sentence cannot be allowed to stand. — Preceding unsigned comment added by (talk) 13:35, 15 August 2011 (UTC)

Looks like that's been fixed by citing [A346=B404].

Now if someone would just cite the Hamlet jive and decide if we're linking to Hamlet or not and if we're italicizing it or not. Right now there's Hamlet in italics & linked, without italics and linked, without italics and unlinked. Out, out, damned inconsistency! Wait, that's some Scottish lady... Rufwork (talk) —Preceding undated comment added 14:20, 2 December 2011 (UTC).