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It currently states in the article that the first nation to codify its laws was
ancient Rome. Is there some reason why the Code of Hammurabi (circa 2000BC) or
earlier codes do not qualify for this title? Is it just because Babylon and Ur
were considered city-states instead of nations, or is there some other reason?
--Tcooke 07:05, 1 September 2007 (UTC)