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October 15

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Indefinite integral of inverse function

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If we know the indefinite integral g(x) = can we find the indefinite integral directly from g(x) without performing an integration? Duoduoduo (talk) 23:20, 15 October 2012 (UTC)[reply]

Integration by parts shows that
From this you should be able to figure out whatever you need to.Sławomir Biały (talk) 00:10, 16 October 2012 (UTC)[reply]
So ; example: Ssscienccce (talk) 06:33, 17 October 2012 (UTC)[reply]
Thanks. Am I correct in assuming there's a typo in your first equation, Ssscienccce -- f(x) should be f -1(x)? Duoduoduo (talk) 20:56, 17 October 2012 (UTC)[reply]