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It looks like naïve definitely ''was'' the standard form but has become a variant as a result of uninformed attempts to Anglicise and modernise as well as the fact that the typewriter and computer keyboards have made it cumbersome to include the diaeresis.--[[User:N Vale|N Vale]] ([[User talk:N Vale|talk]]) 15:19, 9 May 2010 (UTC)
It looks like naïve definitely ''was'' the standard form but has become a variant as a result of uninformed attempts to Anglicise and modernise as well as the fact that the typewriter and computer keyboards have made it cumbersome to include the diaeresis.--[[User:N Vale|N Vale]] ([[User talk:N Vale|talk]]) 15:19, 9 May 2010 (UTC)

:The Oxford English Dictionary indicates both spellings were in use in the 17th century. It's unclear in most early contexts whether writers takes themselves to be using a French word in an English sentence, or using an English word that has a French ancestor. [[Special:Contributions/150.135.114.150|150.135.114.150]] ([[User talk:150.135.114.150|talk]]) 18:34, 20 July 2010 (UTC)


== another use of the word ==
== another use of the word ==

Revision as of 18:34, 20 July 2010

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Naive (without the dieresis) is actually the standard spelling, while naïve (with the dieresis above the 'i') is the variant form. Below are just some of the sources that give naive as the standard and main entry: Merriam-Webster Dictionary [1], The American Heritage Dictionary of the English Language: Fourth Edition [2], Random House Unabridged Dictionary [3], WordNet® 3.0 [4], Online Etymology Dictionary [5], Encarta World English Dictionary [6]
Here is the entry in Garner's Modern American Usage (by Bryan A. Garner), which is considered an authority on grammar, usage and style of the English language: "naive; naïve; naif; naïf. The standard adjective is naive (without a diaeresis), the standard noun naif (again, no diaeresis). The others are variant forms..."
I have requested to move the article from Naïve to Naive. Kman543210 (talk) 22:07, 8 September 2008 (UTC)[reply]

I dunno about the spelling though. Many fo those sources where US english, and while yes they are correct in the US, they may be incorrect in UK/International english. I haven't checked (too lazy) but if they are correct in UK english then they are technically allowed to stay under the wikipedia rules which states that either UK or US english may be used. Maybe it shoudl be investigated and both spellings explained.

EDIT: Ok just checked the Cambridge dictionary, both are acceptable. By wikipedia rules it can stay right, btu I do think some mention of both spellings should be included. I think in Australia the correct spelling is naïve but then again many dictionaries have mixed messages about it. I was always taught to use the ï. Anyway, they probably should be both mentioned121.223.128.48 (talk) 03:39, 8 February 2010 (UTC)[reply]

It looks like naïve definitely was the standard form but has become a variant as a result of uninformed attempts to Anglicise and modernise as well as the fact that the typewriter and computer keyboards have made it cumbersome to include the diaeresis.--N Vale (talk) 15:19, 9 May 2010 (UTC)[reply]

The Oxford English Dictionary indicates both spellings were in use in the 17th century. It's unclear in most early contexts whether writers takes themselves to be using a French word in an English sentence, or using an English word that has a French ancestor. 150.135.114.150 (talk) 18:34, 20 July 2010 (UTC)[reply]

another use of the word

To be naïve is to be virginal, unaffected, unselfconsciously artless ... in short: ingenuous. Naiveté is a much-maligned word, having the common assumption that it implies gullibility. Nevertheless, to be naïve means to be simple and unsophisticated.

http://actualfreedom.com.au/library/topics/naivete.htm —Preceding unsigned comment added by 24.86.3.114 (talk) 04:33, 14 September 2009 (UTC)[reply]