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k to kh

Isn't it typical of Florence to change intervocalic k to kh (I am not indicating an aspiration but a velar?), Michele [mikhele]? --Error 01:28, 27 March 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Yes and no :) I mean, if Michele is pronounced in Florentine dialect, the 'ch' is a [h]. In case you've heard a Tuscan speaking Italian with a non-Tuscan Italian or with a foreigner, you might have heard the velar [kh]. This is typical for Tuscans when they try to speak proper Italian. Generally it is hard for us (I know it being myself Tuscan) to pronounce the 'ch' in Michele as a [k], so we try to get closer to it by pronouncing it as [kh] :) --Rutja76(talk to me!) 08:06, 4 April 2006 (UTC)[reply]

ci to zi

Is it a rule the correspondence of Florentine Uffizi for Italian ufficci? --Error 01:32, 27 March 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Uffizi is just an archaic italian form. The modern italian is uffici (not ufficci), and we pronounce it with the soft c. Sergio Ballestrero 20:11, 16 July 2006 (UTC)[reply]

cci vs. sci ?

With letter c as [ʧ] → [ʃ] , do -cci- and -sci- become homophonous?

  • Not in Firenze or Prato, where actually a double c does not become soft at all. I'm not sure about other areas. Actually, the article fails to note some finer details; for example, in some cases the consonants are actually reiforced respect to what they would be in Italian: "vieni a casa" sounds more like "vien'a ccasa". Sergio Ballestrero 20:21, 16 July 2006 (UTC)[reply]
  • I'm from San Gimignano and I study in Pisa so I can pretty much can tell you that no, it doesn't happen in any part of Tuscany. It's correct what Sergio said, sometimes the cs are reinforced because Tuscan tend to merge words.

Usage of past tenses

It is quite common for Tuscans to use the passato remoto tense (meaning "remote past") instead of passato prossimo ("near past"), for example "Lo vidi ieri al supermercato" ("I saw him/it yesteday at the supermarket"). Can someone formulate this in a correct form and point out in which parts of Tuscany it is common (should be at least Florence and Siena)?

Use of "punto"

I think in the morphology section should be added the use of punto as a negative form. --Fertuno 01:38, 28 December 2006 (UTC)[reply]

"Codesto" is not an exception but the real correct italian

Being italian and from Florence I'd like to point out that "codesto" is the only correct italian form to reference an object far from the speaker and near to the listener. Using "questo"(this) or "quello"(that) in place of codesto(which can't be literally translated to english as far as I know) should be considered a grammatical error in italian. The fact that tuscan people are the only people still respecting this rule does not diminish the rule importance. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 80.74.176.55 (talk) 14:47, 2 May 2008 (UTC)[reply]

This is not true. Every, I say every vocabulary say that 'codesto' is a "Literary or Tuscan" form in standard Italian. This doesn't mean it is not correct of course. It pretty much means the contrary: it is Italian spoken at its best, as it is often the case with Tuscans. Still, it is not common elsewhere. --89.97.35.70 (talk) 22:31, 11 July 2008 (UTC)[reply]