Talk:Mary & George

Buckingham and 'The Pox'

What is the source for the assertion in the synopsis of Episode 3 within this article that George Villiers had specifically smallpox? In the 1610s, "the pox" included a wide range of illnesses. The English were fully capable of correctly differentiating and diagnosing smallpox, and they customarily referred to it by that specific name. In the episode, the actor says simply, "the pox." That terminology more commonly referred to syphilis, which was called by the English variously the "Great Pox," the "Spanish pox," the "French pox," or simply "the pox." Given that Villiers had only just bedded the male prostitute, it seems to me far more likely that the writers meant a sexually transmitted pox. Additionally, those around George when he collapsed did not retreat in horror, as they certainly would have done had they suspected smallpox. King James asks how George might have been infected, a question that persons would not have asked regarding smallpox (smallpox was believed to be airborne) and that seems instead to refer to direct physical contact, then Lady Somerset insinuates that the route of transmission was a morally questionable behavior or act (i.e., sexual). Lastly, if the makeup artists were worth whatever they were paid by the film's producers, the appearance and pattern of the rash on George's skin is not consistent with smallpox, which is ordinarily evenly spread across the entire surface of the skin in the instance of smallpox, but entirely consistent with pre-modern syphilis. I am confident that "the pox," as used in Episode 3, referred to "the Great Pox," and I have therefore edited the article to reflect the actual languages used in the script. DesertSkies120 (talk) 08:38, 30 April 2024 (UTC)