Talk:Phono-semantic matching

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Israel[edit]

I don't see what this page has to do with Israel. Maybe an entry should be added for Hebrew? —Preceding unsigned comment added by 90.197.254.12 (talk) 13:46, 2 April 2010 (UTC)

It has absolutely nothing to do with Israel, except for the fact that the article has an extremely heavy Israeli POV bias. —ᚹᚩᛞᛖᚾᚻᛖᛚᛗ (ᚷᛖᛋᛈᚱᛖᚳ) 22:47, 12 May 2010 (UTC)
It does? I don't see it. — Ƶ§œš¹ [aɪm ˈfɹ̠ˤʷɛ̃ɾ̃ˡi] 23:48, 12 May 2010 (UTC)
History section focuses entirely on Hebrew, first language listed below that is Hebrew. —ᚹᚩᛞᛖᚾᚻᛖᛚᛗ (ᚷᛖᛋᛈᚱᛖᚳ) 18:14, 14 May 2010 (UTC)
The history section focuses on the guy who introduced the idea, who happens to be Israeli, and uses the same examples he uses. Not to say that the effect of that (and listing Hebrew first) isn't Hebrew-language centric, but it shouldn't be too hard to expand on that section to include other voices and list the example languages in alphabetical order. — Ƶ§œš¹ [aɪm ˈfɹ̠ˤʷɛ̃ɾ̃ˡi]`

Intentional false cognate[edit]

Would it be wrong to summarize this as coining an intentional false cognate? --Damian Yerrick (talk | stalk) 22:14, 23 May 2013 (UTC)

Possible example[edit]

The Arabic word jinni (an angel, demon, or spirit; lit. hidden [being]) was translated into French as génie, from Latin genius (spirit associated with a person or a place). I don't have any sources calling it as an example of "Phono-semantic matching", though. - Mike Rosoft (talk) 06:04, 27 March 2014 (UTC)

Difference with folk etymology?[edit]

Right now I'm having trouble understanding the difference between this and modification through folk etymology. Is there even a real difference? Maybe the article could explain it better. CodeCat (talk) 14:26, 27 March 2014 (UTC)