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This is an old revision of this page, as edited by 98.218.75.95 (talk) at 00:07, 19 August 2012 (→‎Slaves in Modern Times?). The present address (URL) is a permanent link to this revision, which may differ significantly from the current revision.

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Picture

I've deleted the picture of freed slaves voting in New Orleans in 1867.

The reason is that these people would have presumably been freed by the abolition of slavery at the end of the Civil War in 1865, rather than manumitted (freed by an individual owner while the instituation of slavery still existed). Apeloverage (talk) 11:39, 3 September 2010 (UTC)[reply]



I added some new material. Entry is now out of balance and proabably needs restructuring and elaborating. Flounderer 23:43, 21 October 2005 (UTC)[reply]


Current article says:

In Rome former slaves... did not gain all the rights of a Roman citizen.

And yet in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Freedman it says:

It was the exceptional feature of ancient Rome that almost all slaves freed by Roman owners automatically received Roman citizenship.

This disparity needs to be corrected or better explained.


Richard Ford, in his novel "The Lay of the Land," uses the term in a novel fashion to mean something quite different but literally correct ("to send off by hand"), when he writes of his protagonist's morning routine including "a manumitting interlude in the men's room."Jjoffe 14:01, 27 January 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Slaves in Modern Times?

Shouldn't this article have something on manumission of slaves in America in the early 19th century? Some were freed contingent on them going to Africa, esp. Liberia, or to Haiti, I think. According to D. W. Meinig, The Shaping of America, Vol. II, p. 305 ff., this was a thinly-disguised deportation project. Most of the freed slaves didn't want to go to Africa, with which they retained little affinity. 69.249.59.121 20:25, 21 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

I agree that this article should not just be about manumission in ancient Rome and Greece--if anyone feels like writing sections about other contexts, that would be great. --Brian Z 15:05, 4 September 2007 (UTC)[reply]

I came here via a search on the meaning of the word "manumitted" as used in the non-fictional book "Modern Medea", Steven Weisenburger, 1998, being chiefly an account of the attempted escape of a family of Kentucky slaves in 1856, the subsequent murder of the youngest child by her mother,

and the resulting ramifications in press and legal circles throughout the country, and which contains many, many references, most garnered through original research by the author. In particular the issue of male slaveowners siring children by female slaves is one where "everybody knows but nobody says anything", or certainly, ever wrote such stuff down, so it is particularly challenging to handle in a scholarly, objective fashion without appearing to have one's own bias. Denying it happened because of a lack of references may not be a wise policy. User:John Tucker August 18, 2012

Delphi and tobacco?

The "Motivations" section mentions "Manumission contracts found in... Delphi specify... the prerequisites for liberation. For instance, in the early years of slavery (before 1865)..." and goes on to give an example involving tobacco and rice. This is entirely inconsistent and connects two very distant timeframes in almost the same context. (Pre-1865 are hardly "early" years of anything in relation to Delphi.) These statements really should be clearly separated, and ideally more detailed. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 87.198.255.118 (talk) 16:23, 22 November 2008 (UTC)[reply]


Serfdom?

Since this article is found in a catagory for "surfdom," shouldn't manumission of mideval surfs be discussed? —Preceding unsigned comment added by Chamberlian (talkcontribs) 23:05, 4 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It should, and probably in a separate article. The Polish Wikipedia corresponding article focuses primarily on serfdom instead of slavery. --Piotr Konieczny aka Prokonsul Piotrus| talk to me 04:08, 23 January 2012 (UTC)[reply]

pecunium vs pecuniam vs peculium?

This article uses the word "pecunium"; is it correct, or should it be either "pecuniam" or "peculium"? I'm having trouble finding a definition for pecunium. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 66.66.149.221 (talk) 21:51, 12 February 2012 (UTC)[reply]

Slavery in Islamic countries and manumission

References are given, but no content related to this. Parkwells (talk) 13:19, 7 May 2012 (UTC)[reply]

Comparative practices

Not sure of the value of including content on ancient and nineteenth-century societies. More to the point, at least for comparison, would be inclusion of material for how France and Spain handled manumission of slaves in their colonies. The planters of the South liked to compare themselves to the ancient slave societies, but do not appear to have adopted much from them. Parkwells (talk) 13:19, 7 May 2012 (UTC)[reply]