|WikiProject Languages||(Rated Start-class)|
|WikiProject Judaism||(Rated Start-class, Mid-importance)|
My page about Hebrew pronunciation, with Yemenite Hebrew focus.
Any other dialects
Were there any in Jordan, Saudi Arabia & etc.
I'm under the impression that there is both a LITURGICAL Mizrahi Hebrew and a Mizrahi Hebrew used in everyday speech.
The problem is, everything I've been able to find on this whole topic so far is rather vague and confusing.
Gringo300 10:34, 8 October 2005 (UTC)
It seems like the term "Mizrahi Hebrew" is highly over-generalized and insensitive. Does it ever come into use? Aucaman 11:09, 25 October 2005 (UTC)
- It could be argued that the term "American English" is also "over-generalized and insensitive". Obviously, there are different racial and ethnic variations of American English, as well as regional variations. Gringo300 (talk) 18:39, 23 March 2009 (UTC)
Hebrew naming conventions
Bet vs. vet; Arabic vs. Spanish
Lack of differentiation between bet dagesh and bet raphe is more likely to be an Arabic influence than a Spanish influence, as Arabic has no /v/ sound. So if there was any change in Arabic-speaking countries after 1492, it is more likely to have been from /b/ to /v/ than from /v/ to /b/. /b/ pronunciations tend to be found in places like Iraq with few Sephardi immigrants, while /v/ is found in Morocco where there were many.
As for Spanish, it is correct that the distinction between /b/ and /β/ is now purely a function of position and is not regarded as making a phonemic difference. The same is in fact true in Hebrew: bet and vet are alphabetically and etymologically the same letter, and the pronunciation is determined by position: the dagesh is just a reading aid to show that where this happens.
However, it was not true in medieval Spanish, and is not true today in Ladino, where "b" and "v" are distinct letters (and, incidentally, "v" is labio-dental as in English, not bilabial as in modern Spanish). Sephardim themselves vary: /v/ was used in Greece and Turkey, while /b/ was used in England and Holland, no doubt because they were influenced by modern Spanish rather than Ladino.
So I think TShilo12's paragraph has things the wrong way round; partly because it assumes that the modern pronunciation must have been the "real" or "original" pronunciation, so that it is necessarily the /b/ rather than the /v/ pronunciation that requires explanation.--Sir Myles na Gopaleen (the da) (talk) 10:18, 10 March 2008 (UTC)
"שׂ (Sin) is pronounced [ɬ]"
(Tsadi) is pronounced
(Tsadi) is pronounced [sˤ], like Arabic ص (voiceless pharyngealized alveolar fricative)