Talk:Voiced retroflex fricative

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"Rida" in Swedish

While I'm not a linguist myself... I don't think many swedes pronounce Rida with a retroflex fricative. Maybe it's used by some dialects, but I would say Alveolar flap is much more common. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 81.235.136.245 (talk) 17:46, 4 January 2008 (UTC)[reply]

You say "maybe." If you don't even know, then we can take it out and someone willing to include it again can source it. — Æµ§œš¹ _{[aɪm ˈfɻɛ̃ⁿdˡi]} 20:34, 4 January 2008 (UTC)[reply]

[ʐ] = [ʒˠ]?

Is it possible to view this sound as a velarized [ʒ], i.e. [ʒˠ] or [ʒ̴], just like the way [ʑ] is equal to [ʒʲ]? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 88.240.56.129 (talk) 13:28, 10 November 2011 (UTC)[reply]

No it's quite distinct from that. [ʒˠ] would have a secondary narrowing (articulation) in the velar area, while [ʐ] is made using the tip of the tongue curled up and without any secondary articulations (and it could, technically, be velarized: [ʐˠ]). --JorisvS (talk) 14:21, 10 November 2011 (UTC)[reply]

Same as French "j" (as in "je")?

Is this the same sound as French "j" (as in French "je")? 173.89.236.187 (talk) 21:20, 4 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

No, that's a different sound, a voiced palato-alveolar sibilant, though they are similar. --JorisvS (talk) 18:39, 5 July 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Chinese - Non-sibilant fricative?

In Chinese dialects, r is considered to be somewhat in between retroflex approximant and a retroflex fricative. Approximants aren’t pronounced with the mouth closed like sibilants are. Could it be said then that that the Chinese r is actually a retroflex non-sibilant fricative? TheNewLetters (talk) 14:15, 5 May 2020 (UTC)[reply]

Add note

How about Standard Chinese/Mandarin? in Topique “[ɻ˔]”. Some linguists say "Pinyin R is [ʐ ~ ɻ]". Do you want to skip this? Juidzi (talk) 11:41, 18 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]