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It's just Canada and Australia etc obtained acts the completly severed them from the United Kingdom long after gaining independence by names such as the Canada Act. I'm just a bit confused, is the Indian Independence Act the same as these other ones that I am talking about? Or is it different? Is India not completly severed from the United Kingdom? Flosssock1 (talk) 01:58, 28 October 2009 (UTC)[reply]
As far as I know, it was the Indian Independence Act 1947 that completely severed India from the UK. India continued with the British king as Sovereign until it became a republic in 1950 with the adoption of the Constitution of India. To my knowledge, Canada never had specific act which granted them full and immediate self-governance. Instead, they were given self-governace in 1867, and over time became independent in practice. I recall hearing that some in the Britain government were surprised when Canada asked for patriation (full severance), as they had thought Canada was already fully independent. I don't know if it was the same in Australia or not, but it sounds tha way. - BilCat (talk) 02:27, 28 October 2009 (UTC)[reply]
I get an impression that the Indian Independence Act 1947 is just an act that was passed by the British Parliament and if the same Parliament passes similar other act over-riding the act, India will become a part of the Britain. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 220.227.13.249 (talk) 12:02, 1 March 2012 (UTC)[reply]
The British parliament could pass a law making China a part of Britain. Such a law falls within its sovereign authority, as understood in British constitutional law. But that wouldn't make China a part of the UK. It's no different with India. The UK may well repeal the Indian Independence Act as a "spent measure", but it recognizes India as a sovereign state over which it has no authority different from any other state.
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