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2010 comment

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I wouldn't (and won't) touch this page with a barge pole. But having read the first half of it oh, dear, system fail.Bali ultimate (talk) 19:04, 15 February 2010 (UTC)[reply]

Based on what I've read, the matrilineal tradition has no basis in the Tanakh. It is based entirely on a socio-historical incident, the 2nd fall of the Roman Temple. Whoever cited that quote from Deuteronomy should provide an explanation of the quote's relevance or the quote should be removed. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 128.101.194.64 (talk) 01:52, 11 April 2012 (UTC) As I previously noted, that quote should be removed if no one provides an explanation of its relevance -- its relevance is not implied within itself. I will take the liberty of removing it. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 67.138.142.185 (talk) 04:20, 13 May 2012 (UTC)[reply]

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Jewishness of Jesus

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If Judaism was patrilineal at the time of Jesus' birth this means he may have not been Jewish (since his paternity is unknown and the area was full of non-Jews at the time, including Romans).Historian932 (talk) 03:20, 8 December 2017 (UTC)[reply]

sentence in lead

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In this edit of December 20, 2017, it was added to the lead that "All denominations of Judaism have protocols for conversion for those who are not Jewish by descent." I think that was a good edit. But today, December 31, 2017, that material is being removed. Can we have consensus on whether that should stay or be removed? Bus stop (talk) 23:26, 31 December 2017 (UTC)[reply]

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Edit war about NPOV

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WP:NPOV says "A neutral characterization of disputes requires presenting viewpoints with a consistently impartial tone; otherwise articles end up as partisan commentaries even while presenting all relevant points of view. Even where a topic is presented in terms of facts rather than opinions, inappropriate tone can be introduced through the way in which facts are selected, presented, or organized." My understanding of this is that facts presented in an article need not be shown to be false in order to still be considered inappropriate in the way they are presented (contrary to anonymous user 148.75.232.17's call for "a scholarly, adequately-sourced counterargument/clarification").

This article already presents the historical context, as well as the positions of modern denominations. Going beyond this by presenting one denomination's position as doing "as virtually all Jewish communities have for at least two thousand years" represents a non-neutral tone, even if it does not contain anything factually false.

The anonymous user also mischaracterizes my statements elsewhere and my motivations. S/he writes that "User Mahrabu indicated in a Facebook discussion that he found the original wording personally upsetting to his religious sensibilities and had decided to "fix" it." My actual comments in that Facebook discussion (in response to someone else referring to this article) consisted of the following: "Wow, WP:NPOV." "Fixed it."

Mahrabu (talk) 16:13, 19 December 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Historical Origins of Matrilineality in Judaism

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This page would be greatly enhanced by a section about the history of matrilineality in Judaism, with historical sources rather than rabbinic ones. The article by Shaye J.D. Cohen, which is an important source, is buried in a section about Conservative Judaism. The problem here is that it treats the article as part of a debate within Conservative Judaism, whereas in actual fact it is part of the wider debate about when and where Judaism became matrilineal. This Wiki article as it stands states that the origin of matrilineality is uncertain in the opening paragraph, but then side-steps scholarly attempts to explain the origin, spending many paragraphs detailing current rabbinic debates rather than historical ones. A section on the origins of matrilineality in Judaism should be front and center, to help the reader understand that there was actually a shift in practices from the pre-Exile period to what came after. Coolazice (talk) 11:10, 26 June 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Absolutely right. Trying to do it. Dan Palraz (talk) 19:27, 6 January 2022 (UTC)[reply]

USELESS ARTICLE from a scholarly point of view

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... for the reasons politely put forward by the previous editor, Coolazice, who obviously missed to touch anyone's heart - because of being polite? The fact remains: TRULY USELESS ARTICLE for anyone who's not a rabbi. People who know a thing or two about when, why and how did matrilineality enter Judaism, please do something. Arminden (talk) 20:19, 15 December 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Sadly, I concur. I was expecting the moon and the stars when I decided to look at this article but was left disappointed. I am very interested in matrilineality/maternal clans, but this article is so full of irrelevant quotes I don't know where to begin. Quotes after quotes after quotes which added nothing to this article. I've learned nothing about the subject reading this article. Very disappointing. The Serer maternal clans article, a West African ethnic group is even better than this, and in fact, is the best article I have seen written about this topic so far. So disappointing. Senegambianamestudy (talk) 01:16, 22 March 2020 (UTC)[reply]
The problem is that it isn't an article, it is a bunch of Bible quotes (and conveniently references to "Jewish tradition" that "supersede" the Bible when convenient, such as in the case of Zilpah and Bilhah, matriarchs of most of the tribes of Israel, actually not being Jewish in the Bible) trying to fool readers into believing Judaism was always matrilinear, when the truth is - it wasn't. Dan Palraz (talk) 19:29, 6 January 2022 (UTC)[reply]

This article is nonsense

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This is polemic by orthodox Jews trying to retroactively show the historical authenticity of matrilineal descent retroactively. Not a scholarly or honest article. The rule dates from the 20th century. Prior to that there was no one definitive rule. The Talmudic quotes on the matter are generally taken out of context. They don't state a general rule but rather give examples as to where a matrilineal is a Jew. 49.186.225.209 (talk) 06:29, 7 February 2022 (UTC)[reply]

Absence of Jews having non-Jewish fathers in the Torah

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In the Torah, there does not exist any case where a Jew (Hebrew or Israelite) has a non-Jewish father. The Torah explicitly identifies children of foreign fathers and Israelite mothers as being half-Israelites, as is mentioned in Leviticus 24:10-16. [1] The man with a non-Jewish father is being contrasted with “Israelites” is clear from the opening verse Leviticus 24:10-16. [2] It identifies one of the men is not “fully” an Israelite but half-Egyptian, in stark constast and opposition with the Israelites, and also emphasizes the half-Israelite as a foreigner (גר). [3][4] This confirms that half-Israelites were not considered Israelites, even if the mother was Jewish. [5][6]

References

  1. ^ "The Contemporary Torah, JPS, 2006".
  2. ^ "Leviticus 21 (Torah Portion Emor)".
  3. ^ "LEVITICUS 17-27 page 270" (PDF).
  4. ^ "Embrace the foreigner: the גר in the Pentateuchal Law" (PDF).
  5. ^ "Violating the Holiness of God's Camp".
  6. ^ "Leviticus 24:10-23" (PDF).