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Why did the South oppose the Tariff but not the North?
The article states that these (1816, 1824, 1833, etc.) import tariffs benefited the North at the expense of the South, which relied on foreign manufactured goods and open foreign markets for its cotton.
Why is it that the North did not also rely on foreign manufactured goods? Even if the factories were largely located in the North, wouldn't they have wanted to sell some of their output to the South -- this seems like normal and sensible means of increasing profits, the whole reason factories exist.
Even if the answer is "obvious," it should still be clarified, even if only in passing.
