Talk:Treaty of Madrid (1667)

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Detailed explanation of edits[edit]

Two possible approaches;

(1) I substantially improve the article by rewriting from scratch, rather than explaining every change; then you tell me what you think is missing and why it matters; or

(2) You add stuff back but ensure its consistent with the rest of the article ie (a) facts have references (or tie into the ones I've provided) and (b) its written in clear, grammatically correct English.

Let me know which you prefer, because I don't want to keep to doing this.

Eight months into Fanshawe's tenure; this adds nothing to the sentence and I'm not even sure what it means

negotiations then dragged on owing to the ill-health of the Spanish King and to the differences amongst his councillors Reference?

Fanshawe thus reverted to adjust a peace between Spain and Portugal as well, this is not English, despite Davenport

along with unstable relations with France What does this mean? And again, reference?

meant that negotiations were suspended.[1] That's not what this reference says, so provide your own or leave it.

'A month later Fanshawe went to Lisbon at the request of Spanish ministers to induce Portugal to join in the treaty. Arriving on 8 March with Sir Robert Southwell the Portuguese refused to negotiate and both returned without success. How does this relate to the Treaty of Madrid?

who also came to the conclusion that Fanshawe had exceeded his instructions.Again, poor English and factually incorrect - they used it as an excuse, not the same

Robinvp11 (talk) 16:34, 22 November 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Thank you - this is what you should've done before you made any changes. This is what the talk page is for. As it is, I'm happy with the article now that you have made the changes & explained them. I will nevertheless cite/source the issues and queries at hand in good time. Eastfarthingan (talk) 22:11, 22 November 2019 (UTC)[reply]
Just edited, added detail and cited queries/issues in question. I'm now happy as to how article looks and reads. Eastfarthingan (talk) 17:22, 25 November 2019 (UTC)[reply]
There seems to be some confusion relation to 'most favoured nation status'. It is quoted in Andrien, Kuethe's The Spanish Atlantic World in the Eighteenth Century: War and the Bourbon Reforms, 1713–1796 page 50paragraph 1 quote - 'The most favored nation status conceded in 1667'. Also a similar quote is mentioned in page 52 of McLachlan's 'Trade and Peace with Old Spain, 1667-1750'. Eastfarthingan (talk) 21:52, 29 November 2019 (UTC)[reply]
  1. ^ Davenport, Paullin 1917, p. 94.