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"Acropoleis" is a pedantic plural
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Huzzah
Huzzah
the fork club attacked <span style="font-size: smaller;" class="autosigned">—Preceding [[Wikipedia:Signatures|unsigned]] comment added by [[Special:Contributions/67.160.148.75|67.160.148.75]] ([[User talk:67.160.148.75|talk]]) 20:55, 27 October 2008 (UTC)</span><!-- Template:UnsignedIP --> <!--Autosigned by SineBot-->
the fork club attacked <span style="font-size: smaller;" class="autosigned">—Preceding [[Wikipedia:Signatures|unsigned]] comment added by [[Special:Contributions/67.160.148.75|67.160.148.75]] ([[User talk:67.160.148.75|talk]]) 20:55, 27 October 2008 (UTC)</span><!-- Template:UnsignedIP --> <!--Autosigned by SineBot-->


I'm not Greek, but this one comes the second after Giza's pyramids, third beeing Colosseum of Rome and 4th Azteck's pyramid, 5th great wall, 6th Petra, 7th Taj Mahal


== "Acropoleis" is a pedantic plural ==
== "Acropoleis" is a pedantic plural ==

Revision as of 01:44, 24 December 2008

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This page seems to get hit with a heck of a lot of vandalism. Is there any particular reason why? -Joshuapaquin 16:44, 5 May 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Good question. No sources, either. -Rich


The Church? Monotheists? Those who don't believe in the gods? Or people who just plain hate Athens? -Elysium —Preceding unsigned comment added by 203.118.180.219 (talk) 08:37, 4 December 2007 (UTC)[reply]

There's a picture with this underneath "The Acropolis and the Propylaea in a 1846 painting by Leo von Klenze." Should that be a 1846 or an 1846???

Early human occupation - The Bronze Age

As much as I like Athens, why is there an entirely speculative article on occupation of the Acropolis during the Bronze Age. If there is no archaeological, textual or epigraphical evidence this entire entry is pure conjecture by the Wikipedian author (85.76.123.252, July 17,2005). This section should include stronger language denoting its speculative content and would have to provide a source pertaining to the supposed speculation, in order to remotely qualify it as viable encyclopaedic content - otherwise it is simply speculative opinion by the author. Stevenmitchell (talk) 14:10, 31 December 2007 (UTC)[reply]

The existence of Cyclopean walls is proof enough. It is the most characteristic attribute of all major Late Helladic (Late Bronze Age) sites in Greece. There is also ample ceramic evidence, a well excavated mycenean underground fountain, several excavated deposits etc. etc. etc. But you are right on the sources issue... some inline citations wouldn't harm anybody. I' ll see what I can do--Giorgos Tzimas (talk) 20:35, 29 September 2008 (UTC)[reply]

Bad link?

The link under the "Cultural Significance" header refering to the Panathenaia festival does not link directly to the festival, but to a game like the Olympic games that are a part of the festival. Should we fix this? —Preceding unsigned comment added by 24.60.76.184 (talk) 19:18, 13 January 2008 (UTC)[reply]

The headline says it all. Andy McDandy (talk) 10:52, 11 March 2008 (UTC) Huzzah the fork club attacked —Preceding unsigned comment added by 67.160.148.75 (talk) 20:55, 27 October 2008 (UTC)[reply]


I'm not Greek, but this one comes the second after Giza's pyramids, third beeing Colosseum of Rome and 4th Azteck's pyramid, 5th great wall, 6th Petra, 7th Taj Mahal

"Acropoleis" is a pedantic plural

Although this is an article about a Greek site, the article is written in English and should be understandable to an international audience. The Wikipedia Manual of Style holds that "when a foreign word has been assimilated into English" it "takes an s or es plural, not its original plural". The word "acropolis" most certainly has been assimilated into English and, therefore, should have a plural form according to regular English rules of grammar.

If we were writing in Greek (in Romanized script), we'd use "acropoleis" as the plural. But we're not writing in English, nor are we writing for an audience who can generally be expected to recognize plurals made according to Greek grammatical rules. Furthermore, if we want to be pedants, why stop at Greek plurals. Why not also use Greek case rules and decline nouns according to whether they're nominative, accusative, genitive, or dative? And why stop at Greek? Why not also follow grammatical rules of Arabic for Arabic plurals, Turkish for Turkish plurals, Russian for Russian masculine plural datives, Latin rules for plural gerundives, Sanskrit rules for Sanskrit dual instrumentals? Well you get the picture. The reason we shouldn't do this is that such adherence to the grammatical rules of the language from which a word is borrowed would render articles difficult, if not impossible, to understand. Interlingua 14:48, 1 December 2008 (UTC)[reply]