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They assumed it would be a short war, that Seydlitz would not enter service before the end of the conflict, and that they would resume construction once they were victorious. As the war dragged on, manpower shortages, especially as officers and men were drawn away for the U-boat arm, and the infeasibility of using surface raiders successfully (at least actual warships - the auxiliaries are a different question) militated against completing the ship as a cruiser. Parsecboy (talk) 14:48, 5 July 2012 (UTC)[reply]
Actually not sure which conflict is meant here ... France, Norway, UK ? I mean in 1940 Hitler's idea was to attack the UK next, not the Soviet Union. And for that purpose they could have used more or less anything that floats. I think I would like a deeper explanation for stopping that boat at that point in time. One would probably have to check what they did instead. At that time there was still enough capacity for anything they wanted. Maybe it was before the French fleet was lost to the Germans ? JB. --92.193.146.62 (talk) 23:32, 17 May 2023 (UTC)[reply]
Yes, the existing tender "Weser" could have been renamed to make room for the planned carrier, but warships in the Kriegsmarine tended to receive more "martial" names or names recalling a certain naval or military tradition.
The ship was still called "Seydlitz" when it was scuttled in 1945 in Königsberg.
And you think that Breyer is correct all of the time? He is certainly guilty of his share of mistakes (see for instance here for just one example). You'll note that the first website also cites Breyer, and the second presents no citations at all. Hardly what I'd call quality references. Parsecboy (talk) 22:23, 3 October 2014 (UTC)[reply]
I did not say Breyer is correct all the time, did I? Was the ship scuttled in Königsberg in 1945 called Seydlitz or Weser? Has there been any advance in the state of knowledge on Kriegsmarine ships since Gröner's book came out in 1966, almost 50 years ago? --Cosal (talk) 22:33, 3 October 2014 (UTC)[reply]
You stated that Groener is unreliable (for as of yet unspecified reasons) and then present Breyer as an apparently authoritative counterpoint. The implication is obvious.
As for Groener, you are of course aware that his book was revised again in 1983 again in 1990, which is the version this article cites?