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This is an old revision of this page, as edited by 2603:8082:4a40:15:58e9:e20f:867b:8f23 (talk) at 23:10, 26 June 2023 (→‎Recent edits by anonymous IP). The present address (URL) is a permanent link to this revision, which may differ significantly from the current revision.

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Recent edits by anonymous IP

Following on the discussion above between, it seems the specialist academic consensus now is that the caste system did not exist and that it is an erroneous historical concept. I don't see a case for arguing the sentence referring to it as a "discredited concept" as being "an unsourced intepretation" by past editors. It is, if anything, a more subtle way of saying what sources themselves are saying - that it is simply wrong. I have found a couple of more sources on this debate which may be relevant, which can be shared on the continuation of this discussion. One of them, a recent Mexican source, claims that although Gonzalbo is right in saying there was no Caste system, there was nevertheless in the 18th century a Caste narrative. Ivan evlogiev (talk) 11:41, 19 July 2022 (UTC)[reply]


Right but to make such a claim, you must have a quantified, verified amount of studies to support that this new narrative is the consensus. Meanwhile, there are still professors at the UNAM and other universities who’ve written about institutionalized discrimination regardless of the concept lacking a proper term to designate such discrimination. Ergo, I do not believe it is “the consensus” quite yet.

Erroneous dating??

"Men of color began to apply to the Royal and Pontifical University of Mexico, but in 1688 Bishop Juan de Palafox y Mendoza attempted to prevent their entrance by drafting new regulations barring black peoples and mulattoes."

...But Bishop Juan de Palafox y Mendoza died in 1659. دانيالوه (talk) 20:10, 27 May 2023 (UTC)[reply]