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Does this claim have any kind of finality whatsoever? It seems to be nothing other then the canonization of a philosophical interpretation, itself committing any number of fallacies. I'm unable to find any adherent of the Copenhagen Interpretation (it's original target) that bothers to address it's rather vague and obscure objection. It seems to mostly be the fodder of self-congratulation by forum and blog posters, without any kind of logical or epistemic certitude. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Equilibrium103 (talk • contribs) 16:47, 1 October 2014 (UTC)