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The lead section currently ends with: "The pronunciation /ˈbuːiː/, while chiefly American, more closely resembles the modern French bouée[bwe]." I don't follow how this can be the case, since the two have no phonemes in common (apart from the 'b', for which there would be fairly general consent), and, unlike the 'other' pronunciation, a whole extra syllable. This is cited to "Oxford English Dictionary; Petit Robert.", i.e. to two separate dictionaries, with no specific references. Sounds like OR, if not to say personal opinion and furious rationalisation to me. Unless there's a direct source for this, I propose to rewrite it to a neutral statement of what the various pronunciations are, and skip the WP-voice editorialisation. 184.108.40.206 (talk) 13:57, 8 March 2012 (UTC)
I have heard americans speak, and thats how they pronounce it, logical or not.
To the above un-signed: the question raised by the first poster is not whether the pronounciation is used by Americans or not, but whether or not the assertion that this is close to the French pronounciation is true, which they maintain it isn’t.Jock123 (talk) 10:07, 1 November 2013 (UTC)
If one were to both separate (in spelling) "bouée" into parts "bou" and "ée" it would be true. Additionally, /buːiː/ is closer to /bwe/ than /bɔi/ is. /u/ is a closer phoneme to /w/ than /ɔ/ is, and I doubt anyone would argue that fact. Tharthandorf Aquanashi (talk) 11:09, 1 November 2013 (UTC)