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:Everyone who's not a Hungarian upset that [https://www.nij.gov/topics/forensics/evidence/dna/research/pages/mitochondrial.aspx mtDNA] and [https://www.nij.gov/topics/forensics/evidence/dna/research/Pages/y-chromosome.aspx?tags=Y-Chromosome Y-DNA] research proves Romanian ethnogenesis in the Carpathian basin (see links/discussion above).--[[User:Iovaniorgovan|Iovaniorgovan]] ([[User talk:Iovaniorgovan|talk]]) 07:18, 10 May 2018 (UTC)
:Everyone who's not a Hungarian upset that [https://www.nij.gov/topics/forensics/evidence/dna/research/pages/mitochondrial.aspx mtDNA] and [https://www.nij.gov/topics/forensics/evidence/dna/research/Pages/y-chromosome.aspx?tags=Y-Chromosome Y-DNA] research proves Romanian ethnogenesis in the Carpathian basin (see links/discussion above).--[[User:Iovaniorgovan|Iovaniorgovan]] ([[User talk:Iovaniorgovan|talk]]) 07:18, 10 May 2018 (UTC)

Wrong. Genetically the Wallachians are not distinguishable from Bulgarians and Southern Serbians. Dacians had genetically similar '''east-Balkan''' stock like these three nations, however it does¨not mean that Romanians are real direct descendants of Dacians. The Daco-Romanian continuity theory is nothing more than a nationalist wishful thinking so-called '''nativist''' idea of the era of national awakening. This highly politically motivated theory was designed and created to claiming (fake) "historic" rights for their high-medieval era immigrant late-nomadic shepherd ancestors.--[[User:Filederchest|Filederchest]] ([[User talk:Filederchest|talk]]) 08:18, 10 May 2018 (UTC)


== Densusianu is fringe ==
== Densusianu is fringe ==

Revision as of 08:18, 10 May 2018

Definitely is too extreme

@123Steller: A subjective statement is exactly that Romanian has definitely Latin origins. In fact it used to be a blend of Slavic and other languages until the 19th century when the united country invented and imposed a Romance identity in contrast to its neighbors. Notice that Vlachs in Ukraine and Poland are nowadays Slavs. Propositum (talk) 03:40, 11 August 2017 (UTC)[reply]

@Propositum: It's unbelievable for me that a "researcher from one of the leading universities" questions the fact that Romanian is a Romance language. 123Steller (talk) 11:04, 11 August 2017 (UTC)[reply]

@123Steller: We should simply avoid so strong statements, because the ethnogenesis is complex. Propositum (talk) 22:48, 11 August 2017 (UTC)[reply]

Propositum, language and ethnicity aren't always linked. Do you have any reliable sources that dispute the fact that Romanian has Latin origins and is in fact a Romance language?TrixAreForKidsSillyRabbit (talk) 23:58, 13 August 2017 (UTC)[reply]
To clear the matter: most words from Romanian are of Slavic origin (neologisms excepted), but the basic vocabulary is of Latin origin. There were indeed Romanian intellectuals who sought to super-Latinize the language, but these efforts have imho failed. Tgeorgescu (talk) 00:18, 14 August 2017 (UTC)[reply]
The sentence which we are discussing is explicitly about the language. The origin of Romanian has been always doubtful and you can read about this for example here: Lucian Boia, Romania, London 2001, p. 53-58.
@TrixAreForKidsSillyRabbit: When will you answer (excuse me for forgiving to sign my last comment)? Propositum (talk) 17:06, 8 October 2017 (UTC)[reply]

Too many extremists from Hungary commit here attacks against Romanians. Suckpuppits like TrixAreForKidsSillyRabbit|TrixAreForKidsSillyRabbit] were several times under discussion in the Board of Wikipedia — Preceding unsigned comment added by 79.118.94.221 (talk) 10:04, 20 September 2017 (UTC)[reply]

Eurocentral, you should not make comments here, because you are banned from WP. Please also try to understand that there is still a rift between your imagination and real world. You are obviously unable to understand that the comment above by TrixAreForKidsSillyRabbit does not suggest that he/she is an extremist from Hungary. Borsoka (talk) 10:13, 20 September 2017 (UTC)[reply]

New campaign of irredentists

A new campaign of irredentists started in these pages. They use false data and original research to restore the domination of minority over majority. False data are used in order to support irredentist theories. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 79.118.94.221 (talk) 10:12, 20 September 2017 (UTC)[reply]

Eurocentral, you should not make comments here, because you are banned from WP. Please also try to understand that there is still a rift between your imagination and real world. Borsoka (talk) 10:13, 20 September 2017 (UTC)[reply]

New archaeological discoveries supporting the Dacic continuation

Hello All, I have read a relatively recent article about a site in Nyiregyhaza where a 3rd century Dacic settlement was found, proving that the Dacians had been in the Pannonia plain before the arrival of the Huns. The article is here: https://positivenewsromania.com/2016/01/14/archaeologists-discover-new-evidence-concerning-the-dacian-tribes/ . If anyone is willing to help investigate more the archaeological site or bring some more sources to this, we should start a very serious discussion about reconsidering the weight of the Origin theories. Have a nice day to all !— Preceding unsigned comment added by 195.90.110.125 (talkcontribs)

What is the connection between a non-Romanized tribe and the origin of the Romanians (who speak a language with quite obvious links to the Latin language)? Or do you want to discuss how the Hungarians of the Pannonia plain were partially descended from non-Romanized Dacians? Borsoka (talk) 15:18, 30 October 2017 (UTC)[reply]
Although I don't enjoy your needless sarcasm regarding the origin of the Hungarians, I will answer as best as I can to your question: One of the theories states that the Huns didn't find anyone in the Trans-Carpathian region when they came. Clearly the region, even extending to Pannonia, was not empty even in the third century, that was my point, supporting the continuation theory. Who tells you they were non-Romanized by the way, can you determine what language that "tribe" (actually ex-Dacian empire, to be more historically correct) spoke ? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 78.97.130.24 (talk) 23:58, 6 November 2017 (UTC)[reply]
Which theory says that the Huns did not find anyone in the Carpathian Basin or Transylvania? The territory was obiously inhabited by Getae, (non-Romanized) Dacians, Vandals, Goths, ... What one of the theories says that there is no evidence that any Latin/Romance-speaking population survived in the territory until the 10th century. The new discovery does not challenge this theory. Borsoka (talk) 02:03, 7 November 2017 (UTC)[reply]
So what happened to the Getae etc found by the Huns ? Were they "Hungarized" ? How come we (in the Carpathian basin) are not all speaking Hungarian if the Latins migrated as late as the 10th century ?
(1) They were Germanised, Slavicized, Avarised. (2) Because the immigration of the Vlachs began in the 12th century and it continued untill the 21st century. Please remember neither were the Transylvanian Saxons Magyarized, although they settled in the province in the 12th and 13th centuries, and their immigration did not last for nine centuries. Borsoka (talk) 01:27, 13 November 2017 (UTC)[reply]
I think you are missing my point. If they were Germanised etc. as you claim, when Dacia was overtaken by the Roman Empire, well, then the Dacians were Latinised, using your line of thought (and historical evidence). The Romanian people are speaking a Romance (Latin) language and, "coincidentally", are situated exactly on the place where the biggest battles between Rome and Dacia took place.... so they must have been here quite some time before the 10th Century. The Transylvanian Saxons were not Magyarized indeed, mostly probably because of the ethnic composition of the land (Romanians, Magyars, Saxons) - even under the Habsburgic rule over Transylvania, the interdiction to have schools in the native language, the trials to impose Catholic religion, the other groups were not Magyarized. This alone says something about the numbers and culture strengths of the other groups . — Preceding unsigned comment added by 195.90.110.122 (talk) 10:44, 13 November 2017 (UTC)[reply]

My photo could be used as evidence, for example, to determine if 1) the water was higher than last week or 2) the winter ice was gone 3) the boat race was on some other lake or 4) if aliens were waterskiing that day. But, until you advance some relevant theoretical claim a photo is just a photo—it is not “evidence.”

— Karl W. Giberson, My Debate With an ‘Intelligent Design’ Theorist
Quoted by Tgeorgescu (talk) 12:50, 13 November 2017 (UTC)[reply]
According to one of the theories of the Romanians' ethnogenesis, their ancestors lived under Roman rule for more than 700 years in the lands to the south of the Danube. The lands to the north of the Danube were under Roman rule for less than 170 years, while German peoples dominated the same territory for almost 300 years. Please remember that the Romanians adopted the names of the major rivers in Transylvania from the Hungarians, Slavs and Saxons, which is quite strange if we assume the Romanians' continuous presence in the territory. Please remember that the oldest Romanian chronicles wrote of the Vlachs' immigration to Hungary. Please remember that 17th-18th-century Transylvanian laws emphasized that the Vlachs had been "admitted into the country for the public good". Please remember that the first Romanian translations of the Bible were published in Transylvania in the 17th century. Please remember that Catholic Romanian priests initiated the Re-Latinization of the Romanian language in the 18th century, etc. Yes, between 1867 and 1918, there was an official policy of Magyarization: do you really think that those four decades could annihilate the consequences of a continuous immigration which had begun in the late 12th century? However, Tgeorgescu is right: we should not debate the concurring theories here. I only wanted to emphasize that the fact that Dacian/Carpian.. groups lived in the Carpathian Basin in the late 4th century, does not contradict to any of the theories about the Romanians' ethnogenesis. Sorry, I will not continue the debate. Borsoka (talk) 14:01, 13 November 2017 (UTC)[reply]
What I mean by "theoretical claim": one has to cite a reliable source preferable used by other scholars, not just a random website without serious editorial control. But since so many pieces of this puzzle are missing, it is unlikely to be solved any time soon. Tgeorgescu (talk) 14:49, 13 November 2017 (UTC)[reply]
@Tgeorgescu . Your answer is really .... strange, to be polite, considering I was inviting others to proceed on investigating the claims of those discoveries. I was not merely showing a picture and stating: "See, it's displayed here, so it must have happened".
@Borsoka : good for you for not debating anymore. "Please remember: the development of the name of the Criş from ancient Crisius would be in line with the phonetical evolution of Romanian". Your claims are based on a few "fellow" scholars, as I can base a lot of claims on my "fellow" scholars, and indeed the debate would go on forever. Finding (more) archaeological proof, by contrast, can destroy any scholar claim and present the real truth. That is one of my initial points of this talk. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 78.97.130.24 (talk) 07:04, 21 November 2017 (UTC)[reply]
My answer isn't strange and here is why: if it is an important discovery, it must have been noticed by scholarly sources. So quote scholarly sources, not WP:BLOGS. Tgeorgescu (talk) 23:40, 23 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Simon of Kéza

Simon of Kéza's text is the following, according to its authoritative English translation: "These Székely are in fact remnants of the Huns, and when they found out that the Hungarians were returning to Pannonia, they came to meet them on the borders of Ruthenia, and then joined with them in the conquest of Pannonia and acquired part of the country. However, this was not in the plains of Pannonia but in the mountains, which they shared with the Vlachs, mingiling with them, it is said, and adopting their alphabet." Gyula Kristó's translation of part of the same text is the following: "According to [Simon of Kéza], the Székely, "together with the Vlachs, received their part among the mountains of the frontier region." Nothing proves that Kéza thought that the Vlachs had lived in the mountains before the arrival of the Székelys. Borsoka (talk) 14:42, 22 December 2017 (UTC)[reply]

@Scheianu:, first of all, please carefully read WP:3RR. Secondly, you have been attempting to add a text to a section which is not connected to the text. Your text is about the settlement of the Székelys and Romanians in the mountains (of Transylvania), but you have been attemtpting to add it to the section dedicated to the development of the diverse theories about the Romanians' ethnogenesis. Thirdly, please use the authoritative English translation of Kéza's text, as per WP:NOR. Borsoka (talk) 15:16, 22 December 2017 (UTC)[reply]

Immigration debate

The Immigration theory should be renamed to Immigration hypothesis throughout the entire article. There are several difference between a theory and a hypothesis and as such, Roesler's south-to-north immigration doesn't amount to a theory. It stands opposed to the Daco-Roman continuity, which is supported not only by several author's research (just like Roesler's) on the subject but, more importantly, by archaeological findings which, in turn, coupled with linguistic evidence and primary sources form a cohesive base that support the the hypothesis - transforming it into a theory. This comprehensive and diverse evidence pool is lacking in support for Roesler's hypothesis.

I would have not proposed this editing, but this false equivalence (and the Wikipedia article) are often times used to support certain nationalistic views. I believe that it is important to underline the distinction between a supposition (Roesler's immigration) that lacks crucial evidence (especially archaeological) and a supposition (Daco-Roman continuity) that is supported by a wide range of evidence, from linguistic, archaeological, toponymy, geographical and not least, lately, even some genetic studies. Equally important is the fact that while any of those evidences might be disputed, individually, they form a cohesive base for the theory. Imagine a criminal investigation - where there are few individual pieces of evidence that provide a definite answer - but rather the totality of the evidence is the one that paints the whole picture. Simply put, evidence support each other so that while individually they might have several explanations when put together they point towards a single common one.

Thank you.Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Oppose. The immigration theory is at least as well supported by archeological research, linguistic evidence and written sources as the continuity hypothesis. Borsoka (talk) 12:01, 6 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Oppose, as well. Moreover, the Daco-Roman continuity theory have numerous weak points, that the other theory does not have. It's a bit odd that the IP is identifying i.e. "linguistic", "toponymy", "geographical studies" roughly as a "comprehensive and diverse evidence pool", although especially these are in the strong support regarding the Immigration theory.(KIENGIR (talk) 15:12, 6 April 2018 (UTC))[reply]
Definitely oppose. Both theories have their weaknesses when it comes to evidence, but to call one a theory and the other hypothesis is dubious, especially considering that the immigration theory doesn't solely rest upon Roesler.TrixAreForKidsSillyRabbit (talk) 04:38, 7 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
I concur: accurately speaking, both are just hypotheses, they never made it to "theory". Conclusive evidence is severely lacking for both. Tgeorgescu (talk) 05:31, 7 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
@Borsoka, KIENGIR, TrixAreForKidsSillyRabbit: Please list those evidences - that support/prove the migration/admigration hypothesis. Saying that some evidence that supports the Daco-Roman theory - or comes into conflict with it gives more credence to the other two hypothesis is a logical fallacy. Such evidences that support those two hypothesis are not present in the article, while the article does present evidence supporting the Daco-Roman continuity theory. Evidence of a Latin-Speaking population south of the Danube does not support those two theories - you need to present evidence proving the alleged migration (especially in the light of abundant evidence of a Latin-speaking population north of the Danube, present in this article). Until those evidences are listed under the same section, in this article, those two (migration, admigration) cannot and should not be presented as "well supported" and "competing" theories. It's simply ridiculous that those evidences are not referenced/presented in this article, for all of us to see how well supported they really are.Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
There is no evidence for anything the (Proto)Romanians did for roughly 1000 years. So, obviously, too many pieces of the puzzle are missing to have conclusive evidence for any "theory" in this respect. Tgeorgescu (talk) 14:19, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Yes, there is no evidence for the continuous presence of a Latin/Romance-speaking population in the territory of the former province of Dacia Traiana after the withdrawal of the Romans. On the other hand, the Romanians adopted the names of the major rivers from Slavs, Hungarians, Turkic peoples and Germans (which can hardly be explained based on the continuity theory). The Romanians did not adopt a single word from the Germanic peoples, although the Gepids dominated the territory for a longer period than the Romans had held it. The oldest Romanian chronicles wrote of the migration of masses of Romanians from the Byzantine Empire to Hungary. The Romanians adopted Albanian loanwords. The Romanians were known as a migratory pastoralist population even in the 12th-15th centuries ... Borsoka (talk) 15:03, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

@Borsoka:

1. As I said, provide those said evidences as links for all the world to see. You, on the other hand, use the same tactic as others (see point 4 below) of trying to take apart the evidence of Daco-Romanian continuity, by casting doubt on the individual parts and hoping that somehow the "whole" gets invalidated.

I asked for evidence supporting your "immigration" hypothesis. The burden of proof is on you. You need to prove a POSITIVE statement - meaning linking/citing archaeological discoveries, corroborated with primary sources, maybe even genetics that show a massive movement of Romanians from the south of Danube to the North.

Point by point: "there is no evidence for the continuous presence of a Latin/Romance-speaking population in the territory of the former province of Dacia Traiana after the withdrawal of the Romans." - Of course there is, archaeological and primary sources. Byzantin coins, Tombstones with latin inscriptions, cities continuously inhabited etc. Some of those very evidences are cited in this article.

"The Romanians did not adopt a single word from the Germanic peoples" - well, I don't have to take your propagan... sorry, word on it. Prove it. Again you make a NEGATIVE statement so good luck in proving it.

"The oldest Romanian chronicles wrote of the migration of masses of Romanians from the Byzantine Empire to Hungary." - Prove it. Where is this chronicle? I happen to know though of the other way around, of Kekaumenos and Ana Comnena's writings, from the 11th century BC, that point towards a movement of a latinized population from Panonia to Transylvania first, and then from Transylvania to northern Danubian plain.

"The Romanians adopted Albanian loanwords." - says who? Yes, there are some (40-50) words similar, but I challenge you to link any independent western study that shows Romanian has adopted Albanian words. Moreover, even if such a thing happened (which might very well be the case) you need to show when that happened, in which historical context etc.

"The Romanians were known as a migratory pastoralist population even in the 12th-15th centuries ... " - see, this is where you show your true colours. Nothing but a Hungarian nationalistic trying to push his political agenda. Support this extremely general statement. You also show the limits of your knowledge (if any) in confusing Vlach/Voloh/Olah/Blach etc. with Romanians. "Vlach" was used to describe many latinised people, just like Romans called the non-Romans barbarians. Now following your logic we should assume that all non-Romans are of the same ethnicity (since all were called Barbarians).

2. You should start by toning your speech down, then you might sound a bit more convincing.

This entire article is filled with messy sections since it fails to recognize the "Vlach" exonym, and the fact that it was applied by various people through history to describe various ethnicities, whom were more or less related but nevertheless spoke latin (or vulgar latin for that matter). Of course, the context of "Vlach" use is to underline the balkan origin. Because readers who are not invested in this will not dig deeper, and the superficial and unrelated mentioning of Balkan Vlachs gives more credence to an otherwise pure speculative migration from south to north of daco-romans.

3. The fact that a Hungarian (with Russian links) is actively trying to molest this page with pseudo-science is appalling.

4. I would not have gone to this length and let you be with your ideas unless this was a public place and as it turns out you are a part of the current campaign of pushing a politically motivated idea (same campaign is happening on Quora).

As I said, I asked for evidence to PROVE the migration hypothesis. You bring nothing to the table but propaganda and modern nationalistic slogans ("The Romanians were known as a migratory pastoralist population even in the 12th-15th centuries ..."). No links, no citations, no nothing. Disproving (or trying to cast doubt) bits and pieces of the Daco-Roman continuity does not equate, in any shape or form, to proving the migration hypothesis, and this is the core of my request. If Wikipedia is to present all those statements (Daco-Roman continuity, South-to-north Immigration or even the more plausible Admigration) in the same light, use the same burden of proof for all of them.

So... where are the archeological finds + primary sources + DNA studies + linguistic studies + etc. etc. etc. that support the migration hypothesis?

Why isn't "Vlach" described in the article in a non-ambiguous way?

Another carefully crafted piece of propaganda: I could not help but notice that in the Historiography section it is mentioned that the Daco-Roman continuity theory was even taught in the Austro-Hungarian Empire until 1870, but in 1780 Franz Joseph Sulzer "rejects" the Daco-Roman Continuity theory. Whomever made this addition is clearly simply malevolent since it is a half truth, and the context is not provided (his beef with Ipsilanti for example). Franz Joseph Sulzer proposes an "alternative fact" which is politically motivated - and he argues that this is the condition of Romanians (justified by his hypothesis - therefore they are not the original inhabitants), to be kept in near slavery.

So it comes that this Wikipedia page quickly points out that the Transilvanian School used the Daco-Roman Continuity theory (in order to lead the reader towards the feeling that it is a politically motivated theory) while the Sulzer's theory is not mentioned as politically motivated (he himself clearly points to this!). So while the Daco-Roman hypothesis was USED as a political tool (which is 100% true) BUT, it was just that, as the theory was already established theory for centuries - so it has no effect on it's merits.

On the other hand the migration hypothesis was CREATED as a political tool. And this, imho, has quite a lot to say about it's merits. It simply falls under the same category with Racial Purity.

So much for balance, impartiality and burden of proof. I do wonder who added those tidbits of texts. Also I have to wonder if there is any Romanian, Serbian or Slovakian wondering around on the Hungarian history Wikipedia pages spreading unproven nationalistic propaganda.

P.S. Even though you do not declare yourself as a Hungarian/Russian agent, your arguments so far and the way you support them are precisely taken from the "book" of Hungarian nationalistic propaganda. A simple google search will lead to forums filled with so-called scientific talk where the arguments always start with "[...] and as we all know the Romanians are a migratory shepherd people [...]".Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Cool down, buddy, see WP:ADVOCACY and WP:NOTTHERAPY. Since we do not know what (Proto)Romanians did for roughly 1000 years, evidence is missing for both of the competing theories. We have to acknowledge that much: both are educated guesses. And that's what our article is saying. Tgeorgescu (talk) 13:59, 20 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
@Tgeorgescu: Although you are right about the cooling down, stating that both statements (continuity vs migration) are educated guesses is misleading at best. Again, I ask for the migration evidence (that will form a cohesive context supporting it - so I ask for the same principle of burden of proof to be aplied to both statements) to be linked to the main article, for everyone to be able to judge the validity of such a claim. Until then one is an educated guess (the continuity), ti paraphrase you, the other is pure speculation. I could very well contort some explanation about the Hungarian origins as well.Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Nobody claims that there was one wave of migration from the south. The immigration theory proposes that the migration started around 1170 and it continued for centuries. Why do you think that Anna Comnena who described the Vlachs as nomads was a Hungarian or Russian agent? Why do you think that archaeological research has proved the continuous presence of a Romance-speaking population if all early medieval sites are situated along rivers bearing Slavic, Hungarian, Turkic or German names in settlements with Slavic, Hungarian, etc names? Borsoka (talk) 15:29, 20 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
@Borsoka: I did not say that Anna Comnena is a Hungarian / Russian agent. Please read more carefully. Moreover, again you misleading, Ana Comnena actually mentions Vlachs coming from the NORTH (to SOUTH), not the other way around.
And moreover - it's slow migration now? Do you have any idea how ridiculous that is? Math and medieval population growth is enough to put this to shame.
Again - can you bring supporting evidence to your statement? (migration or slow migration, as you seem to call it now)?Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Anna Comnena does not write of a migration from the north to the south. She mentioned that the words "Vlach" and "nomadic" are synonyms. You wrote that only Russian and Hungarian agents say, that the Vlachs formed a migratory population. Please read Dlugosz and Chalkokondiles who clearly wrote of waves of migration. Borsoka (talk) 06:26, 21 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

@Boesoka:

Chalkokondyles? That is about Albanian migration.

Jan Dlugosz - 1070 A.D. The first uncontested mention of Vlachs north of the Danube. Jan Dlugosz, a Polish chronicler, reports that Rhutenians, Patzinakas and Vlachs were fighting in the army of cnez Wiaczeslav against Boleslaw, who later become king of Poland.

Can you provide a link for both Chalkokondyles and Dlugosz where thes supposed south-north migration is mentioned/inferred? How about backing up your claims?Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

You're in the wrong place, Wikipedia does not evaluate evidence: we're neither research institute, nor university. We simply render WP:MAINSTREAM WP:SECONDARY WP:SOURCES according to WP:DUE, that's all. Tgeorgescu (talk) 16:30, 20 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
@Tgeorgescu: ??? So anything goes? Is there no rules about acurate information?
And even so - @Borsoka (and even the Wikipedia article itself) has so far failed to produce any WP:SECONDARY WP:SOURCES.
As for WP:MAINSTREAM my contention is that the migration hypothesis is far from it (I cannot understand how can you, rightfully in my oppinion, dismiss Desusianu, but admit this). What is mainstream? Is it 90% Hungarian nationalistic authors/articles mainstream? How about some US, British, French scholars?
The Wikipedia article cites not even one such article (supporting the migration hypothesis) - yet it is considered mainstream? Moreover, the article starts with "several well-supported" theories, but in case the reader does on he can only find evidences for the Daco-Roman continuity and, as for the other "well supported theory", the mention of Franz Joseph Sulzer - and, I again stress, thought the Wikipedia article makes sure to underline the use of the Daco-Roman continuity theory as a political tool by the Transylvanian School it does nothing to mention WHY and HOW Franz Joseph Sulzer came up with the migration theory - reasons he himself admited. Funny enough, those things (his disparaging view of the Romanians) and his conflict with Ipsilanti can be found on Wikipedia too (@Borsoka - go quickly to edit the page).
Since you seem so dismissive of the Romanian ethnogenesis (keep mentioning that nobody knows what the proto-Romanians did for 1000 years) may I respectfully ask to compile such information, presented in a clear way with links to sources where possible? Add this to whatever is present on this page.
I understand and I agree that the comunist regime has used many of those things as a political (Mihai Viteazu and his "national" union for example, Burebista and Decebal as "national heroes" and the list goes on) but this does not take away the merits of every piece of supporting evidence as quite a lot of them, corroborated with the newest tool in historical research (genetics) have been used by Western scholars (US/UK/Germany/France etc) to argue in favor of Daco-Roman continuity.
I also ask that the problem regarding Franz Joseph Sulzer be corrected. Either the context of his "alternative" hypothesis is mentioned or, in case it is considered irrelevant, the mentioning of the Transylvania School's use of the Daco-Roman continuity for political purposes be removed for the same reason (since the theory itself was not something they invented).
@Borsoka: Just in case you forgot, can you bring any support to your claims?
Point by point:
"there is no evidence for the continuous presence of a Latin/Romance-speaking population in the territory of the former province of Dacia Traiana after the withdrawal of the Romans." - Of course there is, archaeological and primary sources. Byzantin coins, Tombstones with latin inscriptions, cities continuously inhabited etc. Some of those very evidences are cited in this article.
"The Romanians did not adopt a single word from the Germanic peoples" - well, I don't have to take your propagan... sorry, word on it. Prove it. Again you make a NEGATIVE statement so good luck in proving it.
"The oldest Romanian chronicles wrote of the migration of masses of Romanians from the Byzantine Empire to Hungary." - Prove it. Where is this chronicle? I happen to know though of the other way around, of Kekaumenos and Ana Comnena's writings, from the 11th century BC, that point towards a movement of a latinized population from Panonia to Transylvania first, and then from Transylvania to northern Danubian plain.
"The Romanians adopted Albanian loanwords." - says who? Yes, there are some (40-50) words similar, but I challenge you to link any independent western study that shows Romanian has adopted Albanian words. Moreover, even if such a thing happened (which might very well be the case) you need to show when that happened, in which historical context etc.
"The Romanians were known as a migratory pastoralist population even in the 12th-15th centuries ... " - see, this is where you show your true colours. Nothing but a Hungarian nationalistic trying to push his political agenda. Support this extremely general statement. You also show the limits of your knowledge (if any) in confusing Vlach/Voloh/Olah/Blach etc. with Romanians. "Vlach" was used to describe many latinised people, just like Romans called the non-Romans barbarians. Now following your logic we should assume that all non-Romans are of the same ethnicity (since all were called Barbarians).Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
We have no use here for propagandists of chauvinism, nor for fringe peddlers. WP:OR is expressly prohibited. As for me, there are things which cannot be known: some cannot be known at all, some cannot be known at the present time. Once you understand that, it becomes much easier to agree to disagree. Tgeorgescu (talk) 00:03, 21 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

@Tgeorgescu: "We have no use here for propagandists of chauvinism" - so Desusianu is considered propaganda and chauvinism (which I do tend to agree) but the migration hypothesis is not? Fact is Franz Joseph Sulzer proposed the southern migration as a political TOOL against the Romanian ethnics in Transylvania. Ever since then it has been used as a political tool - so why encourage one type of propaganda/chauvinism and not the other? Or if we are to dismiss propaganda and chauvinism (as it should be) why dismiss Desusianu but not the southern migration?

As for philosophy - yeah, you are right (and I hope not trying to patronize me). It has it's place, but not here. Here we are talking about burden of proof, balance, and measuring all statements with the same measure. As for agreeing to disagree, I really need no lectures (not necessarily implying you are trying to give me on).

So again, why is Wikipedia knowingly accepting a politically motivated statement be presented as a mainstream, well-supported theory?Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

 Not done: please establish a consensus for this alteration before using the {{edit semi-protected}} template. Eggishorn (talk) (contrib) 18:53, 7 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
I agree with the proposal. The immigrationist and ad-migration hypotheses are both suppositions scarcely backed by physical evidence, as opposed to the continuity theory. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 78.97.130.24 (talk) 22:17, 9 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
I agree with the proposal to downgrade said "theories" to "hypotheses", as there is no evidence to support them. For instance, there are no contemporaneous accounts of any such mass migration for the time period the hypotheses require, all such accounts come from hundreds of years later and are not believable. Moreover, in a rich folklore like Romania's something like a mass migration would've been recorded in significant ways, yet no such thing happened.--196.245.9.70 (talk) 07:41, 19 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
The time period started around 1170 and it has not ended yet. There are several contemporaneous accounts of the settlement of significant Vlach groups in Banat, Transylvania, Maramures, Galicia, Slovakia... Are there reliable sources that label the main scholarly views about the Romanians' ethnogenesis as "hipotheses"? Borsoka (talk) 09:25, 19 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Please link to those contemporaneous accounts (not accounts written much later) of mass migration that you speak of. You also have to prove that no Vlachs/Romanians were living in any of the present Romanian territories at the time. FYI, as recent DNA studies have shown, the ethnogenesis of the Romanian people was already accomplished in Middle Neolithic in the same space occupied by Romanians today (yes, including Transylvania). Minimal change/admixture (especially mtDNA) has occurred since. Quite a coincidence that the exact same ethnicity lives in the exact same place 4,000 years later. All Romanian folklore revolves around the same space. The immigrationist hypothesis has already been proven false. Time for you to find another hobby.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 11:16, 19 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Read any collection of diplomas from the 13th-15th centuries. You will find many references to Vlach knezes who settled on royal or private lands together with their peoples. Do you say ancient Romanians spoke Slavic, Hungarian, Cuman and German, that is why they did not name the rivers of their "homeland" in Romanian? Or should we say that Hungarian folk tales about Hungarian heroes fighting against seven-headed dragons living in the Carpathian Basin could prove a Daco-Hungarian continuity theory? Borsoka (talk) 13:41, 19 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
WP:PRIMARY sources are very easy to WP:CHERRYPICK: simply don't mention the sources you disagree with. That's why WP:SCIRS demands WP:SECONDARY sources (reviews). It is not our task to write literature reviews, we are not a channel for publishing original research, even one based upon WP:PRIMARY sources. Tgeorgescu (talk) 16:26, 19 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
I've read those sources (everybody who's done research on the subject has read them) and they show nothing of the sort. A few movements of pockets of people within their ancestral homeland does not amount to mass migration. And, of course, you choose to ignore all the sources mentioning the presence of Dacians/Vlachs/Romanians in those territories (from Alexiad to the Gesta). As for the language, this is what Jordanes writes about the people who gave you your language (btw, modern-day Hungarians do NOT descend from either the Huns or the Magyars, as every DNA study has shown, like here or here; "Magyars imposed their language on Hungarians but seem not to have affected their genetic structure… These results suggest that the influence of Magyars on the Hungarian gene pool has been very low through both females and males and the Hungarian language could be an example of cultural dominance.") -- now here's Jordanes "There the unclean spirits, who beheld them as they wandered through the wilderness, bestowed their embraces upon them and begat this savage race, which dwelt at first in the swamps-- a stunted, foul and puny tribe, scarcely human, and having NO LANGUAGE save one which bore but slight resemblance to human speech. Such was the descent of the HUNS who came to the country of the Goths." So you see, there wasn't much there to borrow from by either the Dacians/Vlachs/Romanians or anyone else for that matter. In fact, Hungarian linguist Ferenc Bakos in his book "A magyar szókészlet román elemeinek története" (Akadémiai Kiadó, 1982) identifies more than 2,300 words that Hungarian borrowed FROM Romanian. That amounts to up to a QUARTER of your "active, basic vocabulary."--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 07:41, 20 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
You've read those sources, and "nothing of the sort"? Borsoka just mentioned a few points, not exhaustively. You are encountering the subject in a heavy prejudicative way, regarding the subject already decided and over the controversial issues you pass through easily. Even deteriorating from the subject and "caring" about fantastic theories regarding Hungarians. Before you are planning to distribute i.e. Roxin-propaganda, just check i.e. what was adopted by the Romanians from the Hungarian language and a little bit do a research about Hungarian vocabulary, it's cardinality and other charachteristics. However, it seems in your world if some people, nations are judged seriously "scarcely human, and having NO LANGUAGE save one which bore but slight resemblance to human speech", there is no doubt you could be able to cultivate i.e. those editors, that disagree with you in some questions :-).(KIENGIR (talk) 22:40, 20 April 2018 (UTC))[reply]
Yes, I stand by what I said, "nothing of the sort". I don't know what "Roxin-propaganda" is, I don't see that name on either of the DNA studies I linked to or the documents I mentioned. That quote is from Jordanes, I didn't make it up. Again, as DNA research shows, you don't descend from those people, so no insult was intended. The point was about the Hun(garian) language in its original state. I don't speak Hungarian but I did read books on that issue and I quoted from a well-researched and well-argumented work by an established Hungarian linguist (published by the official publisher of the Hungarian Academy, if I'm not mistaken) to dispel any presumption of bias (actually, that's Wiki-proof info, you can put it in your Wiki article on the Hungarian language, if it's not there already).--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 00:24, 21 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Well, then I think you did not read/checked those sources carefully. The so-called "language" claim became distributed by a propagandist. I know where was the quote from, however, you've made an unprofessional, silly assertion regarding that. Again, this article and the topic was not about Hungarians, so I won't go into deeper reactions to that. Did you read the book? If you don't speak Hungarian, no problem, according to your adopted conclusion, you may easily understand the language in case - at least quarterly :-). Did you think about the a propagandistic conclusion of a fringe source - not the book itself, but the OR interpretation of it by some enthusiastic laymen presented in Romanian, i.e. - should be taken carefully? Do you know hat percentage or significance would have if you really care about the total number of number Hungarian words? Again, did you check the amount of words inthe Romanian language borrowed from Hungarian, and i.e. making a comparison? Or also did you check from what in a bigger-lower amount the Hungarian language borrowed from other languages or the the same regarding the Romanian language, and i.e. what assertions could be drawn regarding any foreign influence with less amazement? You think you have enough knowledge to state anything about "the Hungarian langugage in it's original state? Amazing....pfff.(KIENGIR (talk) 19:15, 21 April 2018 (UTC))[reply]
I read those sources very carefully, only a Hungarian extremist (or a slave to that ideology) would still think that those "documents" amount to proof of a mass migration. And, again, you choose to completely dismiss all the sources directly contradicting your hypothesis, the many sources attesting to the presence of the Dacians/Vlachs/Romanians in those territories. My point about the Hungarian language was in direct rebuttal to your co-propogandanist's assertion that Romanians borrowed I don't know how many words and names from Hungarians. I claimed, with arguments, that the opposite probably happened. Yes, Jordanes was probably not fond of the Huns, but maybe he had a reason... Also, if there are any primary sources stating how rich and complex the Hun(garian) language was circa 5th century (before it borrowed most of its vocabulary from the neighbors) please present it if you have "enough knowledge". As for the eminent Hungarian linguist's work, I think it speaks for itself-- whether it was 2300 words or 1000 words, the borrowing still happened mostly in one direction-- from Romanian to Hungarian.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 03:57, 22 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
(1) Oldest Romanian chronicles about the Romanians' northward migration to the "Hungarian land": Russo-Moldavian Chronicle and Cantacuzene Chronicle. (2) Archaeological evidence: how can archaeological finds from territories along rivers with Slavic, Hungarian, Turkic and German names prove the continuous presence of a Romance-speaking population? (3) Scholars about the Albanian loanwords in Romanian: Gottfried Schramm and Vladimir Orel. (4) Lack of Germanic loanwords in Romanian as a negative statement: ok, let's make positive statements. 4th-century 1Roman historians knew that the Romans had been withdrawn from Dacia; the Romanians adopted Slavic, Hungarian, Turkic place-names; the Romanians were known as a migratory pastoralist population for centuries (moreover, they paid tax on their sheep and they adopted their words for a settled way of life from the Bulgarians and Hungarians); there are contemporaneus sources about the settlement of Romanian groups in Hungary from the 14th century; the oldest Romanian chronicles wrote about their ancestors' northward migration to the "Hungarian land". How can you prove the continuity theory without making negative statements about these facts? (5) Romanian loanwords in Hungarian are connected to sheep and goat-breeding. Hungarian loanwords in Romanian are connected to a settled and organized way of life (hotar, adamana, razes...). (6) If you can refer to reliable sources stating that Sulzer's theory was driven by political motifs, please do not hesitate to use them to edit this article. The statement that the scholars of the Transylvanian School created the continuity theory, because they wanted to change the 17th- and 18th-century Transylvanian laws describing the Romanians as a newcommer population is based on reliable sources. Borsoka (talk) 08:07, 22 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

@Borsoka: (1) Oldest Romanian chronicles about the Romanians' northward migration to the "Hungarian land": Russo-Moldavian Chronicle and Cantacuzene Chronicle. - Please detail this. What passage exactly is mentioning this. Also, where is the pre-condition (that there were no Romanians inhabiting the land already) necessary for you to support the migration hypothesis?

(2) Archaeological evidence: how can archaeological finds from territories along rivers with Slavic, Hungarian, Turkic and German names prove the continuous presence of a Romance-speaking population? - really? How do you back your conclusion about Hungarian names? Especially for archaeological findings dating 7th, 6th or even 5th century BC? This will make for a very interesting reading. Or did history start with the Hungarian conquest (which nobody denies) of Pannonia and Transylvania?

As for how archaeology works in relation to history - for example, if we find a cemetery dating from 7th century BC, with tombstones inscribed both in Latin and in Slavic then the natural conclusion is that there were both people inhabiting the area. If we again find another cemetery dating 8th century BC, with Slavic and Latin tombstones, then the natural conclusion is that there were both Slavic and Latin(ised) people living together in those 2 centuries. See, this is how it works. The archaeological findings mark milestones in time, and you put the pieces together.

What archaeological findings can the migration theory claim (I mean you surely have some vestigial remains showing both the route and the time-frame of such migration, right? But as always, you are trying to validate a hypothesis by somehow invalidating another. No, it doesn't work this way. So I respectfully ask you to support migration (or slow-migration - whatever you wish) with archaeological findings.

But just for the record - archaeological remains that support the continuity theory exist. If we broaden our horizons to the villages where the population actually lived, one finds extensive, and important, evidence. For example, the one industry which remained relatively unchanged (until the 5th or 6th century) was the ceramics industry. Monetary treasures at Alba Iulia, Alecus, Dimboa, Hunedoara, Jeledinti, Lapusnic, Reghin, Tiboau and Lisea. If the entire population pulled out of Dacia *during peacetime* , then why didn't they take their wealth with them.

Other important findings come in the form of tombstones or cemeteries. Also one can examine the 6th Century paleo-Christian pots lid discovered at Tibiscum; the fifth or sixth century Christian bronze earthen lamp (rush-light) discovered at Dej; the devotional cross found at Biertan is inscribed in Latin :"Ego Zenovius votum posui".

On the other hand, if people stayed behind, and then the barbarians started invading, it suddenly makes sense to bury one's wealth. The ceramic trail alone attests to the continuous survival of a culture.

In any case, it is also worth noting that the Roman withdrawal was not complete. As late as Justinian the Great's reign (483-565), the Empire still maintained fortifications on the Danube's northern bank.

(3) Scholars about the Albanian loanwords in Romanian: Gottfried Schramm and Vladimir Orel. - You really paint a poor image of yourself if you keep peddling this. First of all it's quite irrelevant, as all languages in the area have borrowed extensively. So the burden of proof is on you not ONLY to show that words have been borrowed, but when and under what circumstances. Second - one can easily refute this by reading the article here, on Wikipedia, about the Romanian language:

"Thus, Romanian is scientifically very interesting from a linguistic and historical viewpoint, since Romance languages did not prevail in the other frontier regions of the Roman Empire in Europe, Asia and Africa; North Africa's falling under Arab sway may have played a role in the ultimate demise of Romance dialects. Also, the conservation in Romanian of these numerous vestiges of Latin military slang (sermo castrensis) – such as a (se)aține ("to waylay"), coif ("helmet"), împărat ("emperor"), a împresura ("to encircle with pressure"), a (se) (în)cumeta ("to venture"), a înțina ("to make thin a tree for its collapse on the invaders"), aținat ("made thin a tree"), mire "fiancé" (< Lat. miles "soldier", metonymy), a purcede ("to advance"), a răpune ("to kill"), rost "sense" a.s.o. (< Lat. rostrum "beak at prow of Roman warship"), (f)sat "village" (< Lat. fossatum "trench for defence", metonymy), șes "plain" (< Lat. sessus "plain place for camping", metonymy), a supune ("to subject"), tindă "veranda" (< Lat. tenda sub vallo "tent out of agglomerated fortress", metonymy), țară "homeland" (< Lat. terra "earth" ˃ Arom. țară "earth"), etc. and their absence in Aromanian (Balkan Romanian dialect spoken in peaceful area) – indicates the continuity of the Latinophones in the northern Danubian region, this despite dire and constant defensive wars with Germanic, "Turanian"[vague] (Turkic peoples and Magyars) and Slavic populations who entered and eventually settled there.

This linguistic evidence challenges the Roeslerian theory. The vestiges from Latin military slang particularize the Romanian language in the neolatin area, together with its isolated history.[11] According to Cristian Mihail, the Roslerian theory is annihilated because of the fact that the Romanian words in common with the Albanian words do not preserve the sound "l" between vowels – in accordance, i.e. with Rom. "māgurā" and Alb. "magulë" etc. – likewise with Romanian words from Latin linguistic stratum (Rom. "scara" < Lat. "scala" etc.) unlike the words from Slavic later stratum, which preserve the sound "l" intervowels (cf. Rom. "mila", no "*mira" < Sl. "mila") would prove that the Romanian words in common with the Albanian words proceed of a latter stratum in Balkan region, near the Albanians, as supporting also by linguistics the continuity of the Latinophons (Romanians) in the Nordic-Danubian region.[12]"

So go fast and edit this article...

(4) Lack of Germanic loanwords in Romanian as a negative statement: ok, let's make positive statements. 4th-century 1Roman historians knew that the Romans had been withdrawn from Dacia; the Romanians adopted Slavic, Hungarian, Turkic place-names; the Romanians were known as a migratory pastoralist population for centuries (moreover, they paid tax on their sheep and they adopted their words for a settled way of life from the Bulgarians and Hungarians); there are contemporaneus sources about the settlement of Romanian groups in Hungary from the 14th century; the oldest Romanian chronicles wrote about their ancestors' northward migration to the "Hungarian land". How can you prove the continuity theory without making negative statements about these facts? - Care to back up those "facts"? Also, you keep mentioning the Roman retreat. Yes, nobody disputes that - but what is the relevance of that? As pointed out several times, the administration and legions retreated (although, as I already mentioned, a small military presence remained north of the Danube). But people lived in villages, villas and to some extent in cities. For everything else - back them! As for Romanians settling Transylvania later - tough luck. It's not enough to show that groups of Romanians came to Transylvania in whatever century you wish (12th, 15th, 21st etc). You also need to show there were no Romanians there already (which, coincidentally, even Gesta mentions - and it's irrelevant that Gesta is or not reliable as far as dates and people and other stuff go, the point is why would it mention them AT ALL if there were none there already?)

As opposed to you, proving the daco-roman continuity is based precisely on that - so there is no need to make negative statements. It's like a film - you know what that is? If we have enough frames then you can reasonably build enough of the film to make sense out of it. Which is not the case with the migration, or slow migration hypothesis - or at least I challenge you to show us the pieces of puzzle.

(5) Romanian loanwords in Hungarian are connected to sheep and goat-breeding. Hungarian loanwords in Romanian are connected to a settled and organized way of life (hotar, adamana, razes...). - So? First of all, it's OK with you to apply some logic (debunked) to the "Albanian-Romanian" connection but... not for the Hungarian-Romanian connection? How come? Using your own logic, it seems only reasonable to suggest that simply because Hungarian has sheep and goat breeding loanwords they must have met Romanians when they came to Transylvania, and after conquering the territory and imposing a certain administration the Romanians, naturally, borrowed the specific loanwords from Hungarian. By the way, I am totally lost on the "adamana" word.

On another note you show a really poor understanding of what transhumance means. Again, go check the article here on Wikipedia. And feel free to edit it and say that of course, transhumance does NOT apply to Vlach shepherds because... reasons. The gist of it is that it's a seasonal migration. So they go up in the mountains during the summer, and come back to the plains during the winter. More importantly is that it's not the WHOLE family/community that travels with the sheeps, so to speak. They have a permanent settlements - call them whatever you want. They have "bases of operations" both in the mountains and, even more importantly, in the plains.

(6) If you can refer to reliable sources stating that Sulzer's theory was driven by political motifs, please do not hesitate to use them to edit this article. The statement that the scholars of the Transylvanian School created the continuity theory, because they wanted to change the 17th- and 18th-century Transylvanian laws describing the Romanians as a newcommer population is based on reliable sources. - So, we're at it again with the deliberate misleading and misinformation? The Transylvanian School did not CREATE the Daco-Roman continuity theory (again, read the article, and afterwords as usual edit it to fit your views - there's a whole campaign on it) since the theory was thought in the Austro-Hungarian empire at least until the 19th century - ergo it existed, and was thought, before the mere concept of Transylvanian School came into being. I do have to wonder how come the Daco-Roman continuity was pounding people into accepting that Romanians were living on the land of Transylvania and Hungary since time immemorial, in the context of a continuous migration. I mean the social pressure must have been enormous, to make people see those shepherd emigrants, who were coming in such huge numbers, as the original inhabitants of the land. Surely there must have been a good reason to do this - one that unfortunately I am unaware of. But I am sure you will provide us with a reasonable explanation, heck, maybe even a positive statement, of why such a logical conundrum would exist in Hungary / the Austro-Hungarian Empire.

As for mr. Franz Joseph Sulzer:

- He was an amateur historian, who decided that his knowledge is enough to warrant a study on the origin of Romanians. He did no original research on the matter, but used only existing sources which he either agreed or disagreed with.

- you can also check the Wikipage on him and (again, go and edit it to eliminate this...) see his conflict with Ipsilanti, after which he decided to, in good Dracula-like fashion, write a little piece of fiction berating the Romanian people.

- seriously now - it's enough to quote his own work - the highlight being an argument in the favour of his hypothesis which is... wait for it... Politial! Yep, Pure political. The current political situation of the Romanians represents one of the premise for his statement - being that their condition (treated almost like slaves, even by the "later arrival" ethnics) comes into conflict with them being presumably the original inhabitants of the land. (na: like that has never happened before, the conquerors treating the aborigines like slaves... hard to imagine, right? we couldn't possibly find such cases in history, right?)

Therefore, in a truly amazing spectacle of logic, he concludes that they must have NOT been in Transylvania, and came later than the Hungarians, BECAUSE they are treated like slaves. WOW!. Moreover, he resorts to willingly mistranslation. In a source he cites, mentioning that two Romanian voievozi (Litovoi and Seneslau) would no longer hold their lands who have been under their rule for so long. But because that would go against his premises (of Romanian migration) he magically transforms that to mean "would no longer hold their lands who have been under their rule for the past 3-4 years" by mistranslating the word "hactenus" [latin] to mean "3-4 years ago", instead of "for so long".

Bring it on Borsoka, I start to like this.Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

adding a brief note to the comments by another editor (see above), re. Letopisetul Cantacuzinesc -- I asked that Hungarian fellow before (on several occasions) to come up with contemporaneous accounts of that "migration" he speaks of and yet he can only provide sources that were written hundreds of years (500 years in this case) after the fact. A few things to note about this piece, in no particular order: it was written in the context of the political conflict between Cantacuzino and the Baleanu boyar family; it was meant to portray an "origin" story for Cantacuzino, a Phanariote with Byzantine origins (that is, SOUTH of the Danube), so no wonder he talks about (his) people coming from there; strangely, the pockets of Vlachs (Romanians) crossing the Danube due North do not encounter any resistance at all, they just take over some of the richest land in Europe like they own it, starting to build cities, churches, what have you, at their hearts' desires with no resistance at all, while just a few decades earlier, as mentioned in the Alexiad, no one could cross the Danube without facing a fierce enemy, the "Dacians"-- all this to say that the only reason there was no resistance is because other Romanians (Dacians) already lived there; finally, there's the inconvenient (for immigrationists) story of Radu Negru Voda (a Romanian ruler from Fagaras, Transylvania) and his cohorts actually traveling North to South, the opposite way.--23.83.37.154 (talk) 07:44, 26 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Yes, it seems the editors are quick to remind us of various WP:... rules but forget to abide by WP:PROVEIT, WP:BURDEN, Wikipedia:Verifiability in general.Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
In certain respects, experienced Wikipedia editors are a hive mind. You cannot therefore win a war against WP:PAGs. As for WP:PROVEIT and 500 years after the fact, Wikipedia editors do not make the call, WP:SCHOLARSHIP makes the call, see also WP:OR. Tgeorgescu (talk) 02:51, 30 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Iovaniorgovan, I see so anyone who does not agree with you is judged as an "extremist". Fine. I did not dismiss anything, I just told you did not read carefully or interpreted properly them, without the necessary objectivity. I don't know who would be my "co-propagandist"??. If is a fact that Romanians borrowed from Hungarians, as well the opposite happened, and you did not claimed only what you assert now, but weird conlcusions on the effect of the vocabulary. The complexity of the Hungarian language (that you practically equal with the language of the Huns) in the 5th century to be asserted by a source of an overdid, faboulus, pretentious negative description is the most amateur and unprofessional thing that you can do. The same goes for your statement: "before it borrowed most of its vocabulary from the neighbors". Did you ever check a statistic about the Hungarian vocabulary (or more)? Don't worry, I present the problems of your deductions...again, regarding the "eminent Hungarian linguist's work", it was never debated that Hungarians borrowed from Romanians, what was debated the conclusion and the weird evaluations and assertions regarding this.(KIENGIR (talk) 19:39, 22 April 2018 (UTC))[reply]
@Kiengir -- Well, I exaggerated little, for effect:-) My bad. I do try to be objective and I've been schooled in science, which is why I always open my arguments here with the DNA studies because they're the most objective and cut through the historical muck. Once I have a clear & factual starting point then I can look at the historical sources in the proper light and dismiss those that don't agree with the facts. For instance, the theory/hypothesis that the Romanians formed as an ethnicity in the first millennium somewhere in the Balkans (popular with some Hungarians) has been proven completely false (see DNA study I linked to above). Also, the question of "who was first in Transylvania", has been answered beyond a reasonable doubt by that same study. For what it's worth... I'm not here to discuss politics, I'm only interested in history. Once I have a solid ground to stand on I start looking at the other options and see what "sources" best fit the "facts", what "sources" don't fit the "facts" and why. Etc, etc. Like I said, I don't know for sure what the state of the Hun language was in the 5th century AD, but (right now) I'm inclined to believe that Jordanes was not completely off the mark. If you present evidence (primary sources) to the contrary I'm willing to change my mind about it. It's not something that's set in stone for me. I go where the evidence takes me. And, sure, I agree that there was probably two-way borrowing going on between the two languages, I just don't think that Romanian borrowed all that much from Hungarian (that was in response to that other editor's comments, see above). Naturally, if the Germans or the Hungarians founded a city/settlement and named it, then the Romanians most likely used that same name. Else, they used names given by themselves (like Satu Mare, Mures, etc). As for the "co-propagandist" swipe, I guess that was a little out of line. I thought you guys were in cahoots or something (what with replying for one another) but I just went through the backlog of the "talk" pages here and saw that this other guy has been at it for years (!!), asking the same questions, getting the same answers, to no effect, going around in circles. It's like arguing with a machine. Waste of time. Anyway, all the best.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 08:11, 23 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
It's not our task to weigh evidence, our task is to weigh modern scholarly sources. As I told you, one WP:PRIMARY source does not weigh very much, it is not our task to write reviews. If you keep insisting that a WP:PRIMARY has established WP:THETRUTH, you have a WP:CIR problem and you should be banned from editing and discussing articles which concern the history of Eastern Europe. Tgeorgescu (talk) 10:25, 23 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Ivaniorgovan, according of the indication of the other editors and as you quitted, I also intend to end this discussion with this final asnwer. Probably almost everybody tries to evaulate everything on that pattern or "holy" matter as you describe, despite there was, are and will be many arguments, as even some evidence or facts are judged differently sometimes. I.e. be careful with the DNA studies, since if a population is coming on another population, admixture happens very possibly, and after more waves it is hardly to say who, when and where was first, especially in Europe where the moving, mixing of peoples, cultures, languages were very intense and versatile, at least I disagree as it would be one and only fixpoint correlate from, thus I disagree about the exlusion regarding the ethnogenesis of the Romanians i.e. in the Balkans. Also I did not tell Iordanes should be dismissed all the way, I just pinpointed that regardless of a suggested relation of Huns and Hungarians, especially a few more hundred years the landtaking Magyars and their language is not such a direct reference point. As for the adoption of words regarding Romanian or Hungarian, you may easily check existing statistics and calculate with them. Regarding the names, the name Satu Mare was given in 1925. Mures was the most possible adopted by the directly or by intermediation from Slavic. If more topics or question are coming up, people may explain or raise them more times. All the best as well.(KIENGIR (talk) 20:02, 23 April 2018 (UTC))[reply]
Two quick points: DNA studies do exactly that: calculate admixture. If mtDNA from the Middle Neolithic almost precisely matches modern-day Romanian DNA then there was (little to) no admixture. Case closed. As for Satu Mare, please read a wiki primer here-- there are whole books written about the city but since we're on wiki... Cheers!--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 00:08, 24 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
@Tgeorgescu Good job laying out the traffic rules at Wiki. Will try to not get a ticket.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 06:25, 24 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Still does not necessarily applies to location. I know the Satu Mare article. Bye(KIENGIR (talk) 20:33, 24 April 2018 (UTC))[reply]
@Iovaniorgovan: Truth is that there is only one editor who can get you banned from Wikipedia, that editor is you. Tgeorgescu (talk) 23:17, 24 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

DNA studies can not confirm that Romance speakers (as the direct ancestors of Romanians were called in medieval era: the Vlachs) existed in the area before the high medieval period. Vast majority of modern Romanians (especially in Wallachia) have the very same Balkanic genetic mixture as the Bulgarians and Southern Serbians. It is very hard to genetically distinguish these populations. (The Slavic element in Serbia had lesser impact in the Serbian Genetics, than the ancient balkanic genetic heritage, modern-day Bulgarians had only a small conqueror elite which gave the name of Bulgaria, but the population genetically remained mostly local) Itself the fact, that the population of ancient Dacia has the very similar East-Balkanic genetic admixture like these above mentioned modern-day nations can not prove that Romance speaker Vlachs had any continuity (or more relationship than the genetic ancestors of Bulgarian population and Southern Serbian population. Therefore if we take seriously the migration theory, the migration of the genetically East Balkanic Vlachs to modern-day Romania, these typical East Balkanic genetic results wouldn't be really different than the genetics of ancient Dacian population. We must also know that the genetics of modern Moldavians Wallachian Romanians and Transylvanian Romanians are different genetically. Moldavians are much more Eastern Slavic, Wallachians genetically are the same as East Balkanic nations, Transylvanian Romanians have more Central - European genetics. Therefore only the Wallachian Romanians have East-Balkanic genetic similarity with Dacian era populations. If the ancestors of Romance speaking Vlachs had lived constantly on the Dacian area (The Daco-Roman continuity theory) even after the Roman withdrawal, they wouldn't could preserve their purely East-Balkanic type genetic admixture heritage, due to the centuries admixture of brutal conquerors (Goths, Huns, Longobards, Carpians, Gepids). But Vallachian-Romanians do not have the genetic heritage of these conqueror populations. (these mixture genetic with the conquerors would make them genetically more Central European, more distant from the original East-Balkanic herritage of Wallachian-Romanians.) Logical conclusion: Slavo-Romance mixed speaker Vlachs (the direct ancestors of Wallachian Romanians according to the migration theory) must have migrated from the Balkans in the high medieval era, this is the only possibility that they have similar East-Balkanic type of admixture like Dacians. (I still do not consider Wallachian Romanians genetically closer to Dacians than the other Genetically close East-Balkanic people like Bulgarians or the genetically East-Balkanic Southern Serbians. The ancient East-Balkanic genetic heritage was reintroduced/restored by the high medieval migration of other genetically East-Balkanic Vlach population in the territory of modern -day Wallachian Romania.--Filederchest (talk) 07:25, 30 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

You're all over the place with your comments and you obviously need a briefer course in DNA. First off, feel free to post the links to the DNA studies that support your assertions. I have done so with mine, and they clearly disprove EVERYTHING you say. Just because different people lived in the same regions does NOT necessarily imply admixture, as the DNA study I posted shows. There's another recent study by a German team of ancient DNA of Egyptian mummies-- "Johannes Krause, a University of Tubingen paleogeneticist and an author of the study, said the major finding was that “for 1,300 years, we see complete genetic continuity. ”Despite repeated conquests of Egypt, by Alexander the Great, Greeks, Romans, Arabs and Assyrians — the list goes on — ancient Egyptians showed little genetic change.“ So this shows in yet another example that it's quite possible to not have admixture despite constant invasions. The other big surprise,” Krause said, “was we didn't find much sub-Saharan African ancestry.” What the study found was "that ancient Egyptians are most closely related to Neolithic and Bronze Age samples in the Levant, as well as to Neolithic ANATOLIAN and European populations (Fig. 5a,b). When comparing this pattern with modern Egyptians, we find that the ancient Egyptians are more closely related to all modern and ancient European populations that we tested." So, you see, those ancient ANATOLIAN people did not mix, just like the Vlachs/Romanians (who are, according to the study I linked to, POSSIBLY related to that Anatolian population and hence perhaps living by the same laws; in fact, the Lege Valachorum prohibited marriage with foreigners) did not mix much (at least as mtDNA is concerned, though a bit more on the Y-DNA, as expected due to wars, etc). Now here's another DNA study that shows just how homogenous the Romanian population is and regardless of whether they live North or South of the Carpathians there are some differences, obviously, but they are relatively small "However, this limitation is weak at most, without a strong Northern and Southern Carpathian Mountains mitochondrial haplogroup differentiation". This again disproves your hypothesis. There are Y-DNA studies as well, like the one mentioned in the study above, but even "among these, one study assessing the variability of the Y-chromosome has proposed that... the population structure of the Carpathian basin is relatively homogenous". So there you have it. Either way you look at it the results are pretty clear. Your entire hypothesis is based on the assumption that people occupying the same territory = major admixture, which has already been proven wrong. Also, keep in mind that the Dacians and the Thracians were, according to all ancient sources, related and spoke similar languages so one should expect Romanian DNA to cluster with Balkan DNA. However, they're clearly distinguishable, as you can see in ALL studies ever taken. I assume you're Hungarian, so here's a DNA study for you here, which shows that "Consistent with previous studies, Hungarian-speaking populations are genetically closely related to their geographic neighbours. The Hungarian and Szekler groups cluster together with some other central Europeans (e.g. Czechs and Slovaks), but MAINLY with Balkan populations.” I realize that this comes as a shock to your programming but, as they say, maybe it's time to unplug. Happy readings! p.s. the "Carpians" you mention were actually Free Dacians and they're still all over Moldavia/Moldova to this day, going by the same name (Carp/Carpian); how's that for continuity?.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 00:16, 1 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
To wit, you lump together the Balkans like they're one big population with no genetic difference between their respective countries or nationalities. That's completely wrong, and only a cursory research will reveal that much. I'm not here to teach you what DNA is and how to read DNA studies, you should do that on your own and then come back informed. Besides, it's frowned upon on these pages to talk about DNA research (see thread above). So I'll be brief, with just one example-- go to the Wiki page on the Genetic Studies on Bulgarians and see for yourself. On the Y-DNA side, they found "The overall profile of 808 Bulgarian samples, according to a level of phylogenetic analysis calculating distribution of hgs R1a1a7, R1а1, R1b1a2, R2a, I, E1b1, E1b1b1, E1b1b1a, E1b1b1b, J2b, J2a, J2a1b, J1, G, T, NO, C, H, Q, L, A and B, is positioned nearest to the Romanians per 147 their samples,[14] also backed by studies as early as 2000.[43] However the analysis of the Bulgarian study showed inaccuracy in some aspects using population datasets which proved to contain genetic drift according to alternative more extensive studies on these populations. Furthermore, the analysis did not even involve the populations Macedonians, Serbians, Montenegrins and Slovaks. It is unclear why the extensive datasets and the most proximal Slavic populations to the Bulgarians were excluded from the phylogenetic analysis of the Bulgarian study selectively. The study of the 149 Romanians by whose data they came out most proximal to Bulgarians concludes that Romanians are closer to Ukrainians and Hungarians than to the Bulgarian group sampled by the study.[44]" My note: as expected, seeing as modern-day Hungarians are (according to all DNA studies) Magyarized Europeans (including Magyarized Romanians, obviously), and the Ukraine was occupied in the past by Scythian tribes, many of which were related to the Dacians/Getae (like the Thyssagetae, and even the Massagetae at some point; Sarmatians were most likely of the same race, too). As for the mtDNA study, which is more important here, "According to the largest-scale mtDNA Bulgarian study involving 996 Bulgarian samples, comparing distribution of hgs H, H5, HV, HV0, R0a, J, U1, U2, U2e, U3, U4, U5a, U5b, U6, U7, U8, K, N1, N2, X, M, Т1, Т2, the Bulgarians came out nearest to the Poles, followed by Ukrainians, Croats, Czechs, while neighbouring Turks, Romanians and Greeks remained more or very distant.[61]" That goes to show that, for all our similarities, there are still BIG differences between these ethnicities (for better or worse, I'm not making any judgement here; big love to everyone), something that's easy to pick up on by any DNA expert. And that's the case with that Middle-Neolithic study I mentioned. There's only one population in modern-day Europe that perfectly fits the genetic fingerprint of that ancient people, and that's the Romanians. Moreover, the two closely related populations, 4000-5000 years removed, just happen to live on the exact same territory. If you don't understand this much... Anyway, like I said, I may get kicked off of Wiki for posting about DNA so please do the research on your own, with an open mind and devoid of prejudices and you'll find the truth there eventually, I'm sure. All the best.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 09:25, 1 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
As I said, WP:PRIMARY sources are very easy to twist: simply don't mention those which disagree with you. Tgeorgescu (talk) 09:59, 1 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Agreed. So isn't it time to downgrade the immigrationist "theory" to a "hypothesis"? As far as I'm concerned it should be "fringe", but I'm not the one making the call.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 07:36, 2 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
The continuity thesis fares no better, believe me. Just because you hear it more often, it would not mean that it would be more supported. Other people hear the immigrationist thesis more often, that's the difference. Tgeorgescu (talk) 08:37, 2 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Iovaniorgovan, I agree with Tgeorgescu. You still believe too much your "own proofs", and as well ignore those points we already discussed, seems like a bit "post hoc ergo propter hoc". Regarding Hungarians - as you mentioned them - of course they are related to their neighbors since, instead of parts of the today's Croatian border, parts - more or less - were part of Hungary and they were in the same genetic pool. However we should not enter on those debates that what genes are assigned to what groups and what kind of considerations are attached to that, since it is always twofold that who could be source.(KIENGIR (talk) 08:51, 2 May 2018 (UTC))[reply]
Well, I disagree. The historical evidence, as well as the Wiki-acceptable sources, is overwhelmingly favoring continuity. I don't know how you can see it otherwise. As for genetics, there's no "twofold" way about it. Again, I don't think you have a clue about how genetics work. Even in today's state of "admixture", given a relatively sizable sample there's no way for a specialist to mistake Romanian DNA for Hungarian DNA or Bulgarian DNA, or whatever. Hungarians represent a culture more than an ethnicity. Here's another DNA study of Hungarians showing the same thing: "Conclusion: “"Magyars imposed their language on Hungarians but seem not to have affected their genetic structure… These results suggest that the influence of Magyars on the Hungarian gene pool has been very low through both females and males and the Hungarian language could be an example of cultural dominance."" Every DNA study ever done on Hungarians shows the same thing: you do not descend from the Huns/Magyars but rather you're a mix of Magyarized Europeans (Slovaks, Romanians, Germans, Bulgarians, Gypsies, etc), a mix that's still in the process of formation. So how exactly would the Romanians have gotten their particular DNA fingerprint in your "theory"? That same DNA fingerprint present in Transylvania more than 4000 years ago? That same DNA fingerprint present fairly homogeneously across all Romanian territories? Do you realize how little sense you're making or you're just here to troll? You Hungarians are clearly, by any measure, a very young and still forming European people and yet this is not reflected in the Wiki page of "Origin of the Hungarians" (which redirects to "Hungarian prehistory" and has a blank Genetics section). Shouldn't you be more concerned with tending your own garden than trolling these pages?--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 08:01, 3 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Without to wish to repeat myself, I disagree that historical evidence or something else would "overwhelmingly favoring continuity". My reasons I explained already. Despite this page is about the origin of the Romanians, you care too much about Hungarians. A bit surpised about Bulgarians and Gypsies with such an emphasis :) I think also others before me expressed their opinions, I don't need to repeat, you may read them again. Again, what you see/measure today, is a result of a long way process, tending to assumptions of an early state, where the assignment of some charasteristics in a broad term are based on assumptions or designations by a recent consensus. Debates may be on this, and once a consensus of an assigment is debated or changed, than what was considered to belong to subject "A" will belong to subject "B" and present observational distribution may be challenged by causality. It is just about now which genetic markers are considered to belong a group of people and/or which is present and where in present-day populations and/or what hy written history we believe/assume about the movement of people of nations. If you don't understand what I mean, just check the Scythian/Indo-European debate/confusion, the major shift in the historiography of the romantic nationalism in the 18th-19th centuries when the earlier long-standing standpoints and facts where totally distorted, reinterpreted and they are keeping even today, regardless of many unexplainable confusions and back in time contradicting contemporary evaluation and sources everything is judged differently, but I could the same way mention the Finno-Ugrian theory, that simply does not match with genetic studies. Excuse me, but I cannot take serious such statements like "You Hungarians are clearly, by any measure, a very young...", since Hungary is one of the oldest existing countries, however, no doubt the Hungarians mixed with other people since they contacted with many nations, and we could say the language and cultural preservation was a significant element also in this process. About the questionable and dangerous interpretation of genetic studies also others warned you before. Your harsh accusations about "trolling" I have to refuse, you generated a discusssion that once you said you have finished, but it seems not. I you cannot bear different opinions like yours, sorry, it is not my fault.(KIENGIR (talk) 09:25, 3 May 2018 (UTC))[reply]

@KIENGIR: "Despite this page is about the origin of the Romanians, you care too much about Hungarians." - Really? The irony of what you just said escapes you, right? This article has been vandalised for a long time by Hungarian editors. How come so much interest? I would expect a natural interest from Romanian editors, but Hungarian editors? Why would an article explaining the Romanian origins have multiple Hungarian editors? How come this subject is of such interest for Hungarians? What does the Hungarian state teach you in school? That the Daco-Roman Continuity theory is false. Biased much?Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

This page is about the Origin of the ROMANIANS, and yet you Hungarians are here in force. For what reasons, you should ask yourselves... If I cared too much about Hungarians I'd be trolling the Origin of the Hungarians page (I just had a look and there's a LOT missing on that page, including the Genetics studies, as I've mentioned before). I only bring up Hungarians because the only foreign contributors here are Hungarians. Do you see any other people posting here? Bulgarians? Turks? Ukranians? No. Just Hungarians... for some reason. That says more about you than us. Food for thought. When you post repeated comments with NOTHING to back them up, just expressing your OPINIONS, and even those in poorly constructed "arguments", then you can forgive me for accusing you of "trolling". Didn't mean to sound harsh, but sometimes there's just no other way to put it (there's also a difference between a "troll" and someone just "trolling", you understand?) Anyway, what exactly are you trying to accomplish here? The historical arguments you just mentioned, which actually I agree with, in the main, do not really apply to the argument I made. If you don't "get it", please read again what I wrote. And I said that Hungarians are a young "people"-- it's clear in the context that it's meant as "ethnicity", not "nation." The two concepts are not necessarily related. You try to downplay the significance of these recent DNA studies (maybe because they contradict everything you believe?) but you do it out of a position of ignorance-- which is okay, no one is an expert in everything. However, it's difficult to have a discussion at this level, and this is not the right forum for it. That was my earlier point, which is why I will really try to end it here. So let me state this here in no uncertain terms: the recent DNA studies (of which I only mentioned a couple) have completely, unequivocally and irreversibly proved Romanian continuity on current territories, while completely and irreversibly disproving the "immigrationist hypothesis". No amount of future denying, equivocating, or plain "cultural terrorism" (to use a term coined by your compatriot György Lukács) can change this fact. The only reason we're still talking about it here is because Wiki has certain rules-- as clearly outlined by Tgeorgescu on these pages-- and in general the academia is very slow moving (it has its own interests to preserve and protect). That may take a year or two but it's inevitable, the dam is breaking. In the meantime you can behave like Scrat, that proto squirrel from Ice Age 2, trying its hardest to plug every fresh hole in the ice dam, when the end result is inevitable. But how you choose to spend your time is your business. I sincerely wish you the best.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 12:10, 3 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

@Iovaniorgovan: The whole article has been hijacked. Take a look at the history of it, at one point the information was presented in a very structured way. Even though the migration hipothesys was mentioned (a thing I do not object to) it was obvious how "well supported" is because of how the article was strcutured. Today's article is, in my oppinion, deliberately misleading and covering for the lack of evidence for the migration/admigration. It has been deliberately (again check the history and archives) by mainly Borsoka - who is of course a neutral, objective and non biased (even though he grew up "knowing" that the Daco-Roman continuity theory is false - a thing he learned in school). And well... disappointment all around. The only one here who should be a counter balance, Tgeorgescu - with all due respect, arbitrarily applies WP rules, or he is more concerned that the Hungarian Irredentist article does mention the educational program of Hungarian schools. The gist of this is the article is poorly structured, deliberately misleading, lacks a neutral point of view, respects some WP rules (that are convenient for the editors) but not others. Form my point of view, this being an encyclopedia and not a cooking blog, where otherwise opinions are welcomed, should first and foremost obey the burden of proof. You can make a statement - how about backing it up. Then you go to the reputable sources and such.Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

I agree. And you can clearly see the double standard applied between the Origin of the Romanians page and the Origin of the Hungarians page. Where's the consistency? Even though I also see Tgeorgescu's points, in some ways, it's just a matter of emphasis. As is, equal weight is given to both theories, which is not fair by any standards of proof. On a side note, you might want to sign your comments here because Tgeorgescu reported me for "At Talk:Origin of the Romanians many IPs have shown up, advancing the same POV in the same style as Special:Contributions/Iovaniorgovan," etc. In other words Tgeorgescu appears to lump together everyone who contests the "immigrationist" hypothesis or his way of handling the page content and is trying hard to get us blocked. Nice guy otherwise.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 09:10, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
@Iovaniorgovan, @Tgeorgescu Yes, my bad. I apologise about this, never meant to be drawn up in this.There we go, I hope I signed all my statements (hope I didn't miss any).Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
As Wikipedians, our allegiance isn't to a country/nation, our allegiance is to WP:MAINSTREAM WP:SCHOLARSHIP. Amicus Plato, sed magis amica veritas. For us, truth means what mainstream scholars say is true. If no WP:RS/AC has been reached, we tell it in our articles. And no consensus can be reached, simply because 1000 years of (Proto)Romanian history are missing from the record. This is not a conspiracy against my country, it is simply the way things are. About "may take a year or two": don't make promises you cannot keep; do not make promises in the name of third parties. According to WP:BALL and Benjiboi, "Wikipedia is behind the ball – that is we don't lead, we follow – let reliable sources make the novel connections and statements and find NPOV ways of presenting them if needed." Tgeorgescu (talk) 14:04, 3 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
@Tgeorgescu - Sure, I completely agree with this (the quote). Nevertheless this is an encyclopedia - not an opinion blog, and as such the burden of proof is enforced. And the burden of proof come BEFORE all the other WP:RULES that are thrown around here. Editors, it seems, simply "[...] disagree that historical evidence [...]" (mainly Hungarian editors - who of course, although thought in school that the Daco-Romanian Continuity theory is false, are in no way whatsoever biased... Just look at Borsoka, throwing around the same "arguments" even if he is shown repeatedly that those statements are wrong/false.).
So what gives? Is selectively and arbitrarily applying WP:RULES a sign of a balanced, neutral and objective editing? Do rules apply the same for everyone, of some rules apply when the editor "agrees" or "disagrees"? Is this an encyclopedia or a medium to push fringe ideas for the sake of balance? Example: Even today there are people who believe, sincerely, that the earth is Flat. Shouldn't Wikipedia, by your own standards, be allowed to present this as a competing and "well supported" theory among others? How about Creationism? Maybe the page dedicated to Evolution should contain more Creationism, for the sake of balance (instead of a page dedicated to the controversy - one which is too complex, evidently, to be treated in a couple of short and unsupported statements). Or maybe Climate change denial. Surely that should be presented as a competing (and well supported) theory along with Climate Change.
Please go check Britannica. Read about the origin of Romanians - and although the "migration" hypothesis is mentioned, the encyclopedia chooses to present the Daco-Roman Continuity. Does that make you think about things? Can you read between the lines? Surely such a source, that openly states there are indeed evidences (archaeological and written) supporting continuity, as well as the fact that when the Hungarians conquered Transylvania there were indeed both Slav and Proto-Romanian "voievodate". Surely Britannica qualifies as a reputable source, and surely this lands the death nail in the "migration" hipothesys.
"Between the 10th and 14th centuries new political formations emerged in the Carpathian-Danube region. The Hungarians, who had settled in Pannonia at the end of the 9th century and who entered Dacia in the 10th century, overwhelmed the Slavic-Romanian duchies, or voivodates, that they encountered there. "Cealicuca (talk) 10:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Cealicuca, I really don't understand what kind of "irony would escape me" (from what?). I don't know of any "long time vandalism by Hungarian editors". I suppose mainly editors from Romania or Hungary are interested since the two nations share history on a common location where they live up today. Just for curiosity, could you support you statement with something i.e. what would be taught in the Hungarian schools? Anyway, your overexaggerated conspiracy-theories I am not interested and I agree again with Tgeorgescu, in WP editors has not bounded by nationality or whatsoever, they are Wikipedians.
Iovaniorgovan, I don't know about such thing that "Hungarians would be at force" or similar. I did not check entirely if there would be any editor of a different supposed nationality, however, it is irrelevant anyway, just see earlier comments. However I've met with editors with supposedly different nationality in many Romania or Hungary related articles, but again, WP is not about this, and without a honest self-declaration - or even with that - you cannot judge people's nationality here. With such like "NOTHING to back them up, just expressing your OPINIONS, and even those in poorly constructed "arguments", I disagree, this is your opinion and I still advice you not to focus on personal issues. However, thanks for your clarification. We are discussing here and yes, maybe it is better to read back former arguments than to repeat them again if we do not agree if they were applied properly or not. I've met with many DNA research - and excuse me, I don't agree I would be "completely ignorant" - also the same way could be concluded fantastic theories about Hungarians and how many thousand years ago they would be present, etc. but as you see I don't promote them, because I know about those things things that I tried you to enlight. Shortly: an observational distribution in a present time and it's comparison to an earlier epoch will always be dependent of the initial assigment of the supposed variables and their designations, including as well the location parameter, as well included other parameters that are unceartain. You may conclude partially what is today the situation, what surely what belongs to whom and who was the source and who was borrowing will always have an uncertainty level. If something does not add up according to the accepted/famous theories, explanations are created of the reason, that may be true or not (again, like the Finno-Ugrian theory, or other problems I mentioned before). I am sorry if you don't understand this. Such statements like "the recent DNA studies (of which I only mentioned a couple) have completely, unequivocally and irreversibly proved Romanian continuity on current territories, while completely and irreversibly disproving the "immigrationist hypothesis"." clearly shows that you are fully accepting and believing something, that current (overall) science could not be able to prove. As for your "Ice age" tale I can reflect that you introduce a study of the similarity of the Romanians regardless they are in the north of south claiming as an evidence to support your standpoint, however there is no surpise i.e. in case the same people are migrating to more locations. You can interpet it also that way. The same goes for your orther argumentation that "because some research shows that Romanians would be closer to Hungarians and Ukrainians than Bulgarians" today (my addition), it would prove your standpoint and you even explain them by ad-hoc assumptions like "occupied by Scythian tribes, many of which were related to the Dacians/Getae" and you immediately equal Dacians/Getae as the ancestors of the Romanians, although it is not proven, just an assumption, meanwhile you dismiss the huge effect of Slavs on Romanians, Hungarians, but with a high stress pattern regarding the historical Moldova. The same way you handle Hungarians "who could only borrow everything from it's neighbors". I recommend you to check how the ancestry, origin, language or the race of the Huns or Scythians were classified until the 18th-19th century and/or if the reason of their re-classification are solid or dubious or based on further scholar assumptions that became accepted but as well criticized. Then you will understand hopefully how dangerous is to excommunicate some "ultimate proofs" of origin. All the best as well.(KIENGIR (talk) 13:09, 4 May 2018 (UTC))[reply]
@Kiengir, the DNA studies have to be taken all together in consideration in order to paint a clear picture. The "homogeneity" study I mentioned showed very slight (neighboring) influences in the respective main Romanian territories, but not enough to say they are distinct from one another. In fact, the opposite is true, they are all fairly homogenous, which should tell you one thing: traditionally, the Romanians have NOT mixed much at all despite the various influences (Austrians, Magyars and forced Magyarization, Russians and forced Slavicization, the Turks, etc) over hundreds of years. I added some of my comments to explain the findings, I didn't plan to write an end-all dissertation on the subject (I didn't mention the Slavic influence because, while not as major as some would think, it did play a factor obviously and it's a well-known fact). This "homogeneity" is, again, in accord with the study that finds present-day Romanians very closely related (not just genetically but also culturally, as evidenced by pottery patterns, shapes, etc) to the Middle-Neolithic people living in the same territories. That Middle-Neolithic presence is the anchor, as it were. The Romanians were already formed as a people back then. End of. If you say that Romanians later migrated "in toto" to the South and then migrated "in toto" back to their original territories (with minimal genetic admixture over millennia), then you have a hell of an argument on your hands-- extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence... which you don't have because it doesn't exist. So I'll take Occam's razor: we've been here all along.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 11:55, 5 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
@KIENGIR"Despite this page is about the origin of the Romanians, you care too much about Hungarians." So it's not OK for a Romanian to be concerned about Hungarians editing the Origin of Romanians article, but it is perfectly fine for a Hungarian to be concerned in the origin of... Romanians? Is it more clear now?
"I suppose mainly editors from Romania or Hungary are interested since the two nations share history on a common location where they live up today." - You suppose wrong. If it were Transylvania - sure, I could agree you with. But it's totally not understandable the level of voluntary non-academic interest the Hungarians show regarding the Origin of Romanians - overexagerated conspiracy or not. And you know why? Because Hungarians, the same people that display stamps with "Greater Hungary" on their cars 100 years from Trianon, are susceptible to bias.
The Hungarian educational program is concerned (yet another piece of irony) with "proving" that the Daco-Roman Continuity theory is false. This is my claim (and it ties up nicely with point 1) - this is what you wanted me to support? Would a public voluntary admission of such from a Hungarian national suffice?Cealicuca (talk) 13:58, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
About WP:BURDEN: flat Earth theories are not propagated by WP:MAINSTREAM WP:SECONDARY WP:SOURCES. In fact what WP:BURDEN requires of us is precisely citing WP:MAINSTREAM WP:SECONDARY WP:SOURCES. This is the way we do things around here, and this satisfied the burden of proof: WP:MAINSTREAM WP:SCHOLARSHIP evaluates the evidence and our task is simply citing WP:RS written by mainstream scholars. This is what Wikipedia is about. Tgeorgescu (talk) 16:46, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
@Tgeorgescu: Ok. Let's go step by step. The migration hypothesis rests on two pillars. 1st, and the most important, is to show there were NO proto-romanians (or as everyone here seems to be fond of using - the exonym Vlach, which coincidentally comes in handy to avoid mentioning Tara Romaneasca. Everyone is using Wallachia). The 2nd one is a consequence of the 1st statement and the conflicting reality - that there ARE Romanians in Transylvania at the moment. So, logic dictates that they must have come from somewhere - but ONLY IF the 1st statement is shown as true. Otherwise, the 2nd statement is irrelevant. On another note, and this is the main problem of the migration - it rests on a negative premise. See, logic is beautiful. It's quite difficult - to say the least, to provide evidence that something IS NOT. And this is why this migration will always be in doubt and cannot ever be considered a theory. It start with: "there couldn't have been Romanians in Transylvania, at the time, because so and so". By the way, this "so and so", when this hypothesis was proposed by mr. Sulzer, consisted of "romanians are near slaves so obviously they couldn't be native". I do hope that we live in a more enlightened century where such "proof" is treated the way it deserves. Not on Wikipedia though...
Nest step - the 2nd statement is covered quite a lot, and there are even (yes, admitting to it) evidence that show movements of population from the South of Danube to the North. But there are is also evidence of population movement from the North of the Danube to the South. In any case, again, this is irrelevant while the 1st statement is not supported. So, again (and again, and again) I ask: where is the evidence that supports the 1st statement? Anyone? I'll throw in a pack of Oreos, really.
On the other hand, I just cited one very respected and trustworthy source: the Encyclopedia Britannica.
"Between the 10th and 14th centuries new political formations emerged in the Carpathian-Danube region. The Hungarians, who had settled in Pannonia at the end of the 9th century and who entered Dacia in the 10th century, overwhelmed the Slavic-Romanian duchies, or voivodates, that they encountered there. "
The article on Britannica has been written by a lot of people, only 1 or 2 of them being Romanians. Anyone can check it out. So, if this source clearly states that there were Romanians in Transylvania at the time the Hungarians settled it. This supports the Daco-Roman Continuity AS WELL AS destroys the Migration hypothesis. Hence, trying to "prove" part two of the Migration hypothesis becomes irrelevant. Simple as that.Cealicuca (talk) 19:27, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Typical WP:IDHT reply: I have repeatedly stated that it is not the task of Wikipedia editors to engage in WP:OR in order to evaluate evidence, we simply render WP:MAINSTREAM WP:SECONDARY WP:SOURCES, and this satisfies WP:BURDEN. Modern mainstream WP:SCHOLARSHIP is where evidence gets evaluated, obviously not inside Wikipedia and not by Wikipedia editors. We may only comment on the reliability/reputation of WP:RS relying upon objective criteria (see WP:PAGs), so we render WP:RS/AC, or, in this case, the lack of academic consensus. We do not substitute ourselves for mainstream scholars. This is not the place to advocate that one theory is better than the other, peer-reviewed mainstream historical journals are the place for doing that and we simply take at face value that there is no academic consensus upon the origin of Romanians. Tgeorgescu (talk) 19:45, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Our house, our rules is a blunt way of saying that the Wikipedia community has a set of norms that govern how the encyclopedia is built: norms about what kind of sources we use, about how we handle conflict, and so on. Those norms include not using self-published internet sources, not making blanket statements about ethnic groups (Jews, in this case) without support, not editing against the consensus of editors, and so on. You may consider discussion of those norms as "off-topic," but the Wikipedia community tends to think they are important. Wikipedia articles aren't "owned" by individuals, but they are "owned," in a sense, by the Wikimedia community and the consensus of editors. When an editor, like yourself, decides they want an article to go in a direction other than what the majority of editors want to do, the majority of editors typically preserve their preferred version. Adding material to an article, and then having other editors take that material out, is part of the normal editing process. It's not "force" and it's not "vandalism." It happens to all of us. I'm pretty sure that none of us have our edits here accepted by the community 100% of the time. Learning to abide by Wikipedia's communal decisions is an important part of getting along here as an editor. And if you don't want your editing to be limited by the Wikipedia community's particular goals and methods and decisions, the good news is that there's plenty of other outlets for your work, like perhaps Conservapedia, or getting a personal blog. At the end of the day, Wikipedia really is the private project of the Wikimedia Foundation. It is, roughly, a service that provides summaries of the contents of mainstream scholarship, in the specific sense that "mainstream scholarship" has here at Wikipedia. It's really not an experiment in treating all views equally, and if you think it is, you're likely to wind up frustrated. Alephb (talk) 12:16, 24 January 2018 (UTC)

This is in response to your post on the Leonora Piper talk page which has been reverted. Kazuba, I'm sorry to drop into the middle of this but I saw your post and it intrigued me. I think one of the greatest mysteries in the Internet is "What is Wikipedia for?" Quite a few people have tried to edit Wikipedia believing it to be the place to put your findings and your research so that others can see them. Unfortunately, that's not what Wikipedia was built for. Others try and post what they have seen to be the "truth", again they will find themselves getting reverted because that's not a goal of Wikipedia. I guess the best way to describe it is "The Largest Collection In The World". Wikipedia collects all the other knowledge and puts it in one place so it can be referenced. You express above your love and talent for research - I thinks that's wonderful. We need people like you because we already have enough people like me (I can't find my socks on my feet). The issue would be putting that research on Wikipedia, so long as it's in a book or over-sighted article, fine. If not, you'll get push-back. Also, we have to present both sides of an argument. There's no way to quantify how famous a person is, so Wikipedia tries to stay away from determining who's more or less popular. To say that a thing was very popular is one thing, to compare it to other things that may also be popular is different. Even statements like the ones in the section on "Phinuit" are a bit too far. There are statements that refer to "Phinuit" as a doctor and that his French wasn't very good... That's intimating that "Phinuit" is a real person who could be a doctor and know French. Since there's never been any evidence proving this all we can do is refer to it as "the entity Mrs. Piper referred to as Phinuit". These are some of the restrictions placed on us by Wikipedia, they make it so the stuff we add to an article is concrete and cited to other sources so Wikipedia doesn't get in trouble for "making up stuff". I understand your indignation, I have an article about my father on this site and I can't add several things to it because they are not written down anywhere. I lived with the man for 15 years... was raised by him... ate his cooking... but I can't say "he had one brown eye and one green eye" because it's not written somewhere else. Please don't loose heart, try and stick around and if you need help presenting an argument, please leave a message on mytalk page and we'll work it out together. Padillah (talk) 20:54, 8 December 2009 (UTC)

I have quoted what other editors stated in another context, but it is recommended to learn from what they stated. Tgeorgescu (talk) 19:56, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Again, the problem was not presenting POVs but HOW those are presented. False equivalence. As for Wikipedia, unfortunately it's THE PLACE to go for the current and future generation, for the foreseeable future. As such, Wikipedia is FACT for quite a lot of people, both young minds and not so young. The fact that there is no academic consensus is no excuse for a poorly structured and, in my opinion, biased in quite a lot of statements (see the Transylvanian school reference - using the Daco-Roman Continuity as a political tool, while failing to mention how Immigration came to be. Nothing on Sulzer's political motives - which in turn would make the Immigration a politically created tool) article. I never said to remove content about Immigration / Admigration. I personally think that the Admigration is the most likely explanation, but since it basically suffers from the same logical fallacy I cannot support it in any honest way. I am also stating that this misleading article has been brought to such a state deliberately - this is my opinion.
The gist of it is that several statements are presented as "well supported" while the structure provides no structure in order for people to be able to actually asses such statement, and how well supported they really are. Each one (Daco-Roman continuity, Immigration and Admigration) should have it's own dedicated area, dealing with the evidence, critical points and the possible rejection of those critical points etc. And as a matter of fact I would really like for the content (Immigration) to remain - because if nothing else it has educational value. As for Wikipedia, no matter how this turns out, it NEEDS to adapt to the educational role it has today. And in order to do that it must be able to police the content a lot better than it does now. Simply dismissing this responsibility, out of hand, is nothing short of cowardice.Cealicuca (talk) 20:12, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
For us, false equivalence means WP:GEVAL. Please elaborate how presenting different major mainstream views would amount to WP:GEVAL. And stop accusing others of cowardice, this is not appreciated. Tgeorgescu (talk) 21:16, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
I did not accuse you personally of cowardice, I was obviously referring to the fact that Wikipedia declares itself as a "collection" of knowledge when in FACT it has become much more than that. And apparently it has no policy in place for this, so instead of accepting the responsibility, it applies the same policies as it did BEFORE becoming what it became - and please try to deny that Wikipedia is used as FACT check today. As such it IS mainstream - so everything on Wikipedia automatically gains weight. Weather you like it or not, Wikipedia became MAINSTREAM. As such, things on Wikipedia begin to have a life of it's own.
And here lies the problem - what you call "major mainstream views" is false. The only "mainstream" place, outside Hungary, that supports the Imigration theory is... Wikipedia (in terms of encyclopedias). As for evaluating evidence - you say you don't, but you do. I just gave a reputable source, plainly stating things that you repeatedly said were false. Quoting you: "There is no evidence for anything the (Proto)Romanians did for roughly 1000 years.". This means that you consider this source, Britannica - even more, a reputed Encyclopedia, adding to it the weight of all the research and fact checking of the information provided - as... well, not trustworthy. Is this not evaluating evidence? How can you reconcile your statement to that? Have you not just decided that your opinion is more trustworthy than what the Britannica article stipulates? Does the article of Wikipedia reflect those views? (rhetorical question - yes it does). Or is the Britannica article I quoted and provided a link not considered a worthy source of information for this article?
As for bias - sure it is. The statement "several well-supported theories" is just that, an unsubstantiated statement. It is not backed up by the Wikipedia article itself, not to mention other sources. No, i'll stick to Wikipedia. If one makes such a statement then by all means, provide the supporting information (sources, links whatever) for the theories. As such - provide supporting evidence for the 1st pillar of the Immigrationist "theory".
A neutral, balanced response to my proposal would have been: "ok, why do you say that, let's see how we can improve etc." - instead I immediately got this: "The immigration theory is at least as well supported by archeological research, linguistic evidence and written sources as the continuity hypothesis." So the editor shuts me down with that statement, which I challenge (provide links to said evidence, within this article especially), and he simply keeps on stating it as FACT. After which I am "punished" for not getting it. I get it - I ask that this treasure of information upon which his statement is built be presented on this page so that anyone can come to a conclusion. Wikipedia - a collection of information, right?
Considering all of the above - I therefore ask for arbitration. Since you seem to be an expert on the workings of Wikipedia, could you provide me with the necessary information on how to do that? — Preceding unsigned comment added by Cealicuca (talkcontribs) 21:43, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
No experienced Wikipedian wishes to open an arbitration case unless it is imperiously necessary. And arbitrators only judge behavior, not content: they have no authority on which theory should be preferred in this article. An experienced advice would be that filing for arbitration could end with WP:BOOMERANG. The rest of your arguments are the pot calling the kettle black or special pleading. Tgeorgescu (talk) 21:58, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Well, I am no experienced Wikipedian. I'm fine with my behavior. I wonder if you and others are OK with yours. So yes, I'd like to formally file for arbitration. Now, care to chip in on the other points I made? Like editors not assessing evidence and such? Or how "well supported" is not a subjecting (and in my opinion misleading) forgone conclusion? How come your statements fly in the face of another source yet they are somehow balanced and in line with the "no assessment of evidence" creed? How this article is definitely structured in a balanced and neutral way so that people accessing it can themselves asses the merits of those competing well-supported theories? And if you still have time - about Wikipedia - that it IS mainstream and as such anything here, supported or not, suddenly becomes FACT in the eyes of so many (and from here the imperious need to present the information in a very structured way, pros and cons like, debate even, so that anyone can actually asses the information - this as an alternative to self-policing, like other reputable Encyclopedias, for example Britannica).
As for "he pot calling the kettle black" - sorry, YOU are the master here so you see, even if I were biased, and non neutral and such - you should not. You HAVE to stick to your OWN rules. Be neutral (not make statements with a foregone conclusion). Things like that. Again stressing, I did not ask for removal of the content but rather a change in how it is presented. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Cealicuca (talkcontribs) 22:16, 4 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Very short answer, and Tgeorgescu has right, this discussion and it's frame is already gone too far, you should consider WP:drop the stick. I as well won't continue until the standard of the discussion does not reach a considerable value. Answers to your questions (pharapraphs): 1. You confuse my statement, I meant in this page mainly the origin of the Romanians should be discussed, not the origin of the Hungarians. 2. Similar assumptions, accusations could be also addressed to the opposite side, but the problem is you just generalized Hungarian people in a prejudicative, negative way, does not belong to WP and is highly unprofessional. 3. I don't agree your "point 1" would tie up with what you claim that is anyway a confusion. So you have a claim only. Well, FYI, I heard in the school both of the theories, and I heard also in the Romanian schools more theories are mentioned. Obviously we could say the same way after the most accepted version is discussed entirely, shall it be in Hungary or Romania. Bye(KIENGIR (talk) 09:52, 5 May 2018 (UTC))[reply]
The discussion was also shaped by the article editors too. Those editors substitute their beliefs and ego (see Mr. Georgescu's latest gem) to... well, whatever they wish. I mean if it's not WP:SOURCE it's WP:MAINSTREAM or whatever. Anyway: 1. Precisely, the Origin of the Romanians - and I did not confuse your statement at all. You did miss the irony it seems. 2+3. I said not only that you learn in school - I said you learn that it is FALSE. Not merely "mentioned". And that makes a whole lot of difference. As for the rest of the point... well, so far I accused only mr. Borsoka of being a nationalist propagandist, willingly or not. As for the last sentence - I am sorry but I did not understand where you want to go with that statement.Cealicuca (talk) 07:50, 6 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
The point of this whole thread was to argue over the demotion of the "immigrationist theory" to "immigrationist HYPOTHESIS" in order to fairly assign weight to the respective theories. As is, the "continuity theory" and the "immigrationist theory" are given equal weight when the (Wiki-proof) evidence is overwhelmingly favoring the continuity theory. The immigrationist hypothesis is only seen as valid and promoted mainly/only in Hungary (for obvious political reasons), hence all the Hungarian "nationalist" propagandists here (see double-standard comment I made above), hence the inevitable discussion here about the Origins of Hungarians (which, while revealing in the greater context, I agree is irrelevant here). Like the other user(s) before me, I also ask for an objective assessment of this debate and, if the custodians of this Wiki page are either unwilling or unfit to do this, then this should go to arbitration. If Wikipedia is to maintain its reputation then it should not allow for the possible/potential bias of one editor (page custodian) and/or a group of well-coordinated agents to interfere with a fair presentation of the generally accepted theories.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 10:31, 5 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
I warn you again, better stop with groundless, prejudicative accusations like "all the Hungarian "nationalist" propagandists here" or "well-coordinated agents" just because some editors disagree with you, such may have heavy consequences in WP. As well, "for obvious political reasons" is the same inobjective, prejudicative judgment that could be also addressed to the other side if someone does not wish to remain on the ground of the scientific standards. And you claim "objective assessment". Final answer to you as well, as the above mentioned reasons.(KIENGIR (talk) 10:49, 5 May 2018 (UTC))[reply]
The idea that we should renegade WP:PAGs because Wikipedia is used for fact checking is one of the most ludicrous arguments ever written in Wikipedia talk pages. Tgeorgescu (talk) 11:00, 5 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Again deliberately misinterpreting. Never said to renounce rules. Actually I ask for more rules to be ENFORCED universally (since content on Wikipedia becomes mainstream and thus is accepted as... valid content BECAUSE it is mainstream), by select 3rd parties, not article editors and definitely NOT arbitrarily (seeing your previous comment about Britannica and your own conflicting statement about not assessing evidence). Of course "Renegade WP:PAG" that it's ludicrous - it's always like that after twisting stuff.Cealicuca (talk) 00:12, 6 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Britannica isn't WP:SECONDARY, it's WP:TERTIARY, i.e. not of the kind of sources we prefer. Actually, here at Wikipedia we are pretty much lording it over Britannica. Tgeorgescu (talk) 01:22, 6 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Oh, here at Wikipedia... "we" are lording it? Oh sorry, I didn't know that this is a good excuse for you to abuse the rules and policies. Also, really? Say what? You lording Britannica? Jeesus Christ! So just abusing WP:RULES is not enough? While yes, there might be articles on Wikipedia that "lord" over other traditional sources, this article ain't no way near that.
Anyway, give it a rest already. Quoting from Wikipedia, what "Reliable source" is:
"In general, the most reliable sources are:
Peer-reviewed journals / Books published by university presses / University-level textbooks / Magazines, journals, and books published by respected publishing houses / Mainstream newspapers"
So tell me how is Britannica NOT a reliable source. Also care to explain how what you said is not the pinnacle of arrogance and how your statement doesn't mean that you actually substitute yourself to a SOURCE? — Preceding unsigned comment added by Cealicuca (talkcontribs) 07:26, 6 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
We are not seeking to emulate Britannica, we are a different encyclopedia with different concerns and guidelines. Sometimes it is interesting to know what Britannica wrote, but this discussion of "Britannica is better" has been rehashed many times. And I never meant that I substitute my own judgment for Britannica's or for the judgment of WP:RS. Everything we add to Wikipedia is or should be the view of some reputed scholar. We don't indulge in WP:OR, so my own opinion in the end never trumps the opinions of WP:RS. What I have stated here repeatedly is that WP:RS have diverse views on the origin of Romanians, no academic consensus has been reached, so we merely render the diversity of views, that's all. If there was an academic consensus on this subject, it would be quite another matter. Tgeorgescu (talk) 13:26, 6 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
OK - so explain what kind of different? As I remember Wikipedia started with the mission to provide as acurate information as, say, Britannica. The fact that more than 90% of it's articles are less than A rated (so practically junk following it's own rules) - this article included, says a lot.
Explain Borsoka's reply to my OP in which he starts with "Yes, there is no evidence for the continuous presence of a Latin/Romance-speaking population[...]" as well as yours (no evidence for what they did for 1000 years) in spite of what the article mentions. Explain how Borsoka is NOT biased in light of his statement?
Explain the structure of the article. We're presented with "well supported" theories - isn't "well supported" your opinion?
Why aren't the theories presented clearly, as statements? Why is the most important statement missing from the Immigrationist theory (that in order to have any relevance then the must be NO continuity whatsoever on Transylvania's territory - because this is the contention really)? Without this - everything else is irrelevant. Because if there were Vlachs in Transylvania then it is irrelevant if there were Vlachs in other areas, or that Vlachs moved from another area to Transylvania.
Explain the misleading structure of the article. Presenting the theories and then... Evidence. The Evidence is not catalogues (evidence for WHICH theory) and even the chapters are misleading. Evidence from present day Romania / Evidence of Balkan Vlachs / Evidence of Medieval Vlachs? Based on which rule did those 3 chapters appeared? Why are not the evidence linked to each theory that it supports? I'll tell you why, 'cause if we do this then the Immigrationist theory, based on this very article, gets a really really bad image - simply because the most basic statement is not supported by any piece of evidence, not even one that is in contention.
Explain how come the part about the "political reasons" for the theories only mention the Transylvanian school, but not the backgrounf of the Immigration theory? Why not the criticism of Roesler and Sulzer? Was that not also political?
So OK, forget changing the wording from Theory to Hypothesis. Just restructure it so it makes sense. We have Theory A, Theory B, Theory C. Evidence supporting Theory A, Theory B, Theory C. History of Theory A, Theory B, Theory C. Sound pretty fair imho.
Care to explain how, if one takes a look at the history of the article, it WAS at some point (long ago) quite clear in this respect (mentioned above) while it started to turn into this deliberate misleading mess after Borsoka took over?Cealicuca (talk) 22:35, 8 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Funny thing is you deleted some of my edits ascribed to "reputed scholars" (like Conf. Univ. Dr. G.D. Iscru et al) simply because YOU didn't deem them as "reputed" (despite their credentials) based on your own BIAS. Further, no one here has said that "diverse views" are not welcome, what's on the table here is attributing PROPER WEIGHT to said theories. All theories are not created equal (evidence overwhelmingly favors one over the other), and you should assign proper weight/visibility to the two theories in question by downgrading the "immigration theory" to "immigration hypothesis". Also, you should allow theories/comments/notes coming from academics who don't agree with your POV. Else, you're in effect the arrogant "dictator" of this Wiki page and the rest of us plebes might need to stage a Wiki "rebellion" of sorts. I'm sure it wouldn't be the first one either. Please keep an open mind and make these fair changes as suggested.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 05:24, 7 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
As I have stated, Protochronism is WP:FRINGE/PS (pseudohistory) and does not belong here, it cannot be taken seriously as WP:RS. Also, the deal is this: we cannot downgrade only one of the major views. If we were to downgrade one, we'd have to downgrade them all, see above the argument with 1000 years missing from the record. Since missing such record, it can be predicated almost anything about what (Proto)Romanians did for 1000 years: all such views would be equally supported, or equally baseless. In this context, the continuity theory is like seeing a ship in the haven of Rotterdam, one year later you see the same ship in the haven of Rotterdam and you infer that it stayed in the haven for one year. And the immigrationist theory is like you infer that the ship sailed to US and back. Tgeorgescu (talk) 10:47, 7 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
First off, when you say "1000 years" aren't you exaggerating by a few hundred years? Should we have a recap of the sources now? And to follow your logic, even if we were missing 10 years from the record the "immigration theorists" would still claim that a decade was long enough for everyone to get in the boats and sail to the US (as you say) then return (once the Magyars had conveniently planted their flag in Satu Mare!) So the argument will never cease. However, as with most theories, one should use common sense and sound judgement to assign fair weight to the credibility of each. And, for better or worse, I think that's your job here (if I'm not mistaken). If you're saying you're not going to do it, then let's escalate the problem to the next level. I don't have a problem with that. After all, I doubt that page custodians (or whatever you guys are called) are elected for life, like some kind of royalty. You have to adapt to the times (and the emerging evidence) else you'll be left behind. Again, I'm trying to be as nice and courteous as possible, especially considering that you have falsely accused me (and probably others as well) of trying to get around the Wiki "controls". I'm not waiting for an apology, though one would be welcome. What I'm waiting for is a change in the weight given to the theories mentioned. That's it. Can you do it?--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 05:53, 8 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
@Tgeorgescu: Your example is wrong. The immigrationist "theory" is NOT akin to "the ship sailed to US and back." because this is a falsifiable statement. The immigrationist "theory" is akin to "they couldn't have been in port for the whole time" - an unfalsifiable statement which does not require them to bring proof to support it (since the ship could have left at any point, for any period of time, or maybe some other sister ship took it's place and the original ship sailed away etc.). And this is not opinion, it is FACT.
Now onto my opinion - the point is that no matter how much evidence in support of the continuity is brought, the "immigrationist" can always provide as "evidece" any gap in continuity. - This is the main problem with the immigrationis so-called theory and this is why it is pseudo-science and, in my opinion, more fringe than the Dacian origins (which at least makes falsifiable statements afaik). Give it (imigrationis statements) to a scientist and he will laugh at it being called a "theory" all day long. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Cealicuca (talkcontribs) 23:06, 8 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
I don't know who would be the "page custodians". I don't know what these words mean. Wikipedia has admins, patrollers and ordinary editors (with various degrees of confirmation, like auto-confirmed and extended confirmed). As for the accusation of using WP:PROXY and of WP:SOCKing, I don't have to apologize, since my request for checkuser was endorsed at Sockpuppet investigations. Ok, it ended with inconclusive, but there was enough evidence presented so that the case got endorsed. As for why I have mentioned the 1000 years gap: as a way of explaining why there can be no agreement among scholars on the origin of Romanians. As stated, in the end my own opinion is irrelevant, all that matters are the opinions of WP:MAINSTREAM WP:SECONDARY WP:SOURCES. Wikipedia is a service which abstracts mainstream academic learning, per WP:NOTFORUM it is not a free webhost where editors ventilate their own opinions. And it is not a service which performs original research on empirical evidence. As for nationality, the Romanian Academy does not trump the Hungarian Academy, or vice-versa. Suggesting otherwise is the plague. Tgeorgescu (talk) 23:54, 8 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
okay, non-apology not accepted. so what's your status in the Wiki rank and file?--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 08:21, 9 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
ALL (100%) of the advocates of the "immigrationist hypothesis" on these pages (the Origins of the ROMANIANS) are self-declared Hungarians. Yet that should not be seen as either "subjective" or "coordinated" or "nationalist" or "political" in any way, right? Just a coincidence... I rest my case. p.s. thanks for the "warning", I'll be watching my back from now on.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 11:02, 5 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Who can take seriously an mt.DNA and Y DNA research in the era of Autosomal tests?

As in the DNA research paper revealed, it is only an mt.DNA Y-DNA research, so it is not autosomal DNA research. Only Autosomal researches can clearly prove genetic admixture and genetic differences and distances between populations.--Filederchest (talk) 14:51, 9 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Everyone who's not a Hungarian upset that mtDNA and Y-DNA research proves Romanian ethnogenesis in the Carpathian basin (see links/discussion above).--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 07:18, 10 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Wrong. Genetically the Wallachians are not distinguishable from Bulgarians and Southern Serbians. Dacians had genetically similar east-Balkan stock like these three nations, however it does¨not mean that Romanians are real direct descendants of Dacians. The Daco-Romanian continuity theory is nothing more than a nationalist wishful thinking so-called nativist idea of the era of national awakening. This highly politically motivated theory was designed and created to claiming (fake) "historic" rights for their high-medieval era immigrant late-nomadic shepherd ancestors.--Filederchest (talk) 08:18, 10 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Densusianu is fringe

* Copied from WP:FTN

ND's book is WP:CB, seriously, mainstream Romanian historians have called it "mystical delirium". Tgeorgescu (talk) 09:22, 15 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Oppose. DNA studies Ancient DNA from South-East Europe Reveals Different Events during Early and Middle Neolithic, as objective and NON-fringe as it gets, agree with Densusianu's main thesis, that of continuity of the same people over the same territory over millennia. "M_NEO and modern populations from Romania are VERY CLOSE, in contrast with Middle Neolithic and modern populations from Central Europe."[p.11] As you can see from the yellow diamonds in Fig 2 & 3 in that article, modern-day Romanians/Moldovans are closer to their Middle Neolithic ancestors than to any modern European population. Other people/ethnicities passed through that area over the centuries but there was minimal admixture of mtDNA, except with already related populations. This study alone (there are others) disprove the "Romanization" theory, so what you call "mainstream historians" obviously do not have the last word on the matter and competing theories must be allowed in the arena of debate. Your contesting the inclusion of these theories on this wiki page does a great disservice to truth and history. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Iovaniorgovan (talkcontribs) 09:59, 15 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
I mean, the matter is not even debated: for Romanian historians (whether nationalists or not) ND (in respect to Ancient Dacians) is a lunatic, an open shame, testimony to the endless gullibility of the great unwashed. So, whatever that DNA study says, it does not validate his preposterous ravings. He is like the madmen who showed to C.G. Jung that God exists — even if God exists, it does not mean they weren't mad. Also, the paper you cite does not even mention the word "Dacian(s)", "Getae" or "Thracian(s)". As far as the paper goes, it does not even support the thesis that they have ever existed. Tgeorgescu (talk) 14:23, 15 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Oppose. The matter is absolutely debatable. In fact, many "mainstream" academics have given ND his due credit-- like Iosif Constantin Dragan, Dumitru Berciu, Stefan Pascu (member of the Academy), Conf. Univ. Dr. G.D. Iscru, just to name a few; and many "mainstream" historians in the past held similar views-- like Grigore Tocilescu (member of the Academy), Ioan Andriesescu (correspondent member of the Academy) and even Vasile Parvan, initially critical of ND's work, came around to his way of thinking towards the end of his life (see his posthumously published work), not to mention Mihai Eminescu (not a historian by profession, but still... Eminescu!) and other historians from the past. As for the DNA study... of course they don't mention Dacians, etc, those Middle Neolithic people didn't sign their tombs or anything like that. The geneticists just present the facts, and they are pretty conclusive: direct connection spanning millennia, with minimal admixture. Now, I don't know if you've actually read "Prehistoric Dacia", but the "validation" I refer to (re. ND's work) follows logically. I see, going by your profile, that we went to the same high school so I'd like to think you have basic logic covered. The M-Neo population referred to in the DNA study is what ND calls the "ancient Pelasgians" and the main tenet of his book is that there's a direct link (ethnically and culturally) from those Pelasgians to modern-day Romanians. If you don't see the DNA study as firmly propping ND's thesis, I don't know what to tell you... Of course I realize that ND's methods are a bit unconventional by "scientific standards", as he treats folklore as historical source, but keep in mind that not too long ago the "mainstream academe" scoffed at Homer's writings being anything but pure fiction... until Schliemann discovered Troy.
So, it's not quite how you make it out to be. But... obviously, it's your opinion and so be it, I wouldn't try to wipe your opinion off of Wiki just because I don't agree with it, and by the some token I wouldn't want someone to delete my entries just because they don't agree with the theory I espouse (an age-old theory, mind you). Hope we can be civil about this and not have to take it to arbitration. Noroc!--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 06:22, 16 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
You have repeatedly violated WP:FRINGE. Please take time to read it: Densusianu's woo is not welcome here. Also, Protochronism is not welcome here, and no, it is not mainstream. Perhaps it was promoted as mainstream by Nicolae Ceausescu's state propaganda, but no more than that.
Source for "mystical delirium": Dan Alexe (2 August 2016). Dacopatia şi alte rătăciri româneşti. Humanitas SA. p. 95. ISBN 978-973-50-4978-2. (the book is of the popularized science sort, but it was published by the prestigious publishing house Humanitas).
Here is an article by Zoe Petre: https://web.archive.org/web/20120919170054/http://www.observatorcultural.ro/Burebista-contemporanul-nostru*articleID_1496-articles_details.html
Here is an article by Mircea Babeș: https://web.archive.org/web/20080619232513/http://www.observatorcultural.ro/Renasterea-Daciei*articleID_9072-articles_details.html
The verdict of conscious Romanian historians is unanimous: ND's book is pseudohistory/fantasy trying to pass for history. It is totally ignored by worldwide historians and rejected by the Romanian academics by consensus. Tgeorgescu (talk) 10:33, 16 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Obviously there's no consensus since I already gave you names of historians/academicians who don't subscribe to your views. For every historian you name on your side I can name one on my side of the argument. I'm not interested in "Protochronism" or whatever label you wish to give a theory to dismiss it out of hand. Just the same, I can label you a "Daco-Romanopat" or "Romanopat" for what it's worth. You have no right to tell people which theories are welcome here and which are not. I see you also deleted my other edits, which were properly quoted from works by established linguists and historians (not Densusianu), replacing them with an idea that lacks a proper citation ["citation needed"]-- so I guess such a view is welcome, even without proper citation, just because it agrees with your views. Anyway, pointless to argue about this any further, I'm afraid I'll have to take this to arbitration. All the best.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 10:51, 16 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

This does not at all mean that we don’t in loose, rough and ready ways judge interpretations… all the time. And this does not at all mean that practically speaking that some interpretations are obviously slightly better than others. Let me return to familiar ones like the traffic light. If it’s red and you see it as green, the outcome can be disastrous; Derrida doesn’t deny it. You know, it’s a bad misreading… bad misreading. But this is a familiar mistake and it is made about a lot of Derrida’s work. Philosophers call someone a relativist by which they mean it’s a person that holds that any view is as good as any other view. My simple response to that is this: that is a straw person argument, no-one in the world believes it or ever has believed it. No-one – Derrida or anyone else – believes that every view is as good as every other view. That’s only a view we discuss in freshman philosophy class in order to quickly refute it. I mean no-one believes it. There are no defenders of the view and since this tape will be going out, if we run into one it will be interesting, but we will likely find that person in one of the institutions Foucault discussed rather than in some seminar, okay. That’s where we will find them, if anybody believes that. No, Derrida’s kind of slippage is to remind us that the text of philosophy is not fixed; can not be fixed. It is of the nature of the text of philosophy and its relation to language that we cannot fix it once and for all. In a way it’s like the leaky ship where we haven’t got anything to stop the leak so we just keep bailing. I mean, the leak is in the language.

— Rick Roderick, 307 Derrida and the Ends of Man (1993)
Conclusion: if you want to edit here, you have to abide by our rules, we don't believe in "everything goes", see WP:NOTFREESPEECH. Tgeorgescu (talk) 10:55, 16 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

WP:FTN

This is about Talk:Origin of the Romanians#Densusianu is fringe, namely including fringe authors in a mainstream history article. I have stated that WP:DRN is not the proper channel to advocate for such inclusion. By fringe authors I mean Nicolae Densusianu and Protochronist authors.

The gist of the matter:

Dacia Preistorică by Nicolae Densușianu is a close encounter of the WP:FRINGE kind. All Iovaniorgovan could quote from among the contemporary "scholars" are Protochronist authors and their walled garden. Per WP:ONEWAY pseudohistory is not welcome in a mainstream history article.

Source for ND's book is "mystical delirium": Dan Alexe (2 August 2016). Dacopatia şi alte rătăciri româneşti. Humanitas SA. p. 95. ISBN 978-973-50-4978-2. (Alexe's book is of the popularized science sort, but it was published by the prestigious publishing house Humanitas — prestigious by Romanian standards).

Here is an article by Zoe Petre: [1], one by Mircea Babeș: [2], and one by Eugen Ciurtin: [3]. All of these articles treat ND's book with high contempt, noting that there is nothing new about such contempt from notable Romanian historians in the past 100 years. The articles exemplify such contempt with quotes. They note that all the interest for ND's book was from dilettantes and that his book was not appreciated by professional historians. (ND had some serious historical contributions, but not in respect to the Antiquity.) The verdict of conscious Romanian historians is unanimous: ND's book is pseudohistory/fantasy trying to pass for history. It is totally ignored by the international scholarship and rejected by the Romanian academics by consensus. As Ciurtin notes, nobody (i.e. scholars) reads ND's book any longer, this is shown by consulting the somewhat recently published historical scholarship.

In respect to the claim of Dacian continuity, this is an odd claim and I would like to see mainstream sources supporting it. It should not be conflated with the theory of Daco-Roman continuity which, although not proven, is taken seriously as an explanation of the origin of Romanians. I.e. stating that there is a purely Dacian continuity, with little or no Latin influence is an oddball in respectable historical scholarship (Protochronists are by definition eccentric and marginal, thus not a respectable position in historical scholarship). Tgeorgescu (talk) 19:45, 16 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

DNA studies such as this, Ancient DNA from South-East Europe Reveals Different Events during Early and Middle Neolithic, as objective and NON-fringe as it gets, agree with Densusianu's main thesis, that of continuity of the same people over the same territory over millennia. "M_NEO and modern populations from Romania are VERY CLOSE, in contrast with Middle Neolithic and modern populations from Central Europe."[p.11] As one can see from the yellow diamonds in Fig 2 & 3 in that article, modern-day Romanians/Moldovans are closer to their Middle Neolithic ancestors than to any modern European population. Other people/ethnicities passed through that area over the centuries (as shown in the Late Neolithic sample from the same study) but there was minimal admixture of mtDNA, except with already related populations. This study alone (there are others) disprove the "Romanization" theory (no DNA study to date has shown any "Roman" input in the ethnogenesis of the Romanian people). This DNA study clearly shows that the Romanian ethnicity had already formed (in the same area occupied today) by Middle Neolithic. This is a fact, not a matter of opinion, so we must allow for competing theories that take this into consideration. I don't suggest that Densusianu's work is the historical bible that we must all follow to the letter, but to call him "fringe" is to go to the other extreme. Dacian continuity (with minimal Roman influence) is a perfectly legit theory that is now supported by DNA research (all other theories are NOT), and many reputed scholars have subscribed to it. Here goes again: Iosif Constantin Dragan, Dumitru Berciu, Ștefan Pascu (member of the Academy), Conf. Univ. Dr. G.D. Iscru, Grigore Tocilescu (member of the Academy), Ioan Andriesescu (correspondent member of the Academy) and even Vasile Parvan, initially critical of ND's work, came around to his way of thinking towards the end of his life (see his posthumously published work). And since you anchor your argument to a book by Dan Alexe, a journalist/filmmaker, please allow me to quote the greatest Romanian poet/journalist, Mihai Eminescu, who said that in light of the historical record, "Everything should be Dacicized from now on". Finally, I would also like to mention recent work from two reputable linguists (doctorates, the works) who also subscribe to this view, that no "Latinization/Romanization" ever took place: Carme Jiménez Huertas (We Don't Come From Latin; Original Spanish Title: No venimos del latín; ISBN 9788490503645), and Dr. Mihai Vinereanu (The Evolution of the Proto-Indo-European *BH Sound in Latin and Why Romanian Doesn't Come From Latin)--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 08:24, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
One other thing-- one does not need Densusianu's writings to prop up the Dacian continuity theory. The theory can be thoroughly supported without resorting to ND's work, although people (myself included) do it out of convenience (one-stop-shopping kind of thing).--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 09:28, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
From the article Iosif Constantin Dragan:

According to historian Lucian Boia, Drăgan promoted an extreme version of protochronism, which claimed that the Romania was the cradle of civilization, and the Romanian people the oldest in Europe:

As the author of We, the Thracians (1976) and editor of the periodical of the same title (Noì, tracii) that was launched in 1974, he was the leading figure of an entire movement aimed at amplifying the role of the Thracians in European history, a movement supported by all sorts of amateurs (even a lawyers’ group!) but also by some less than scrupulous professionals (among them the archaeologists Dumitru Berciu and Ion Horaţiu Crişan). In the periodical Noi, tracii it was possible, for example, to claim that the ancestors of the Romanians lived 100,000 years ago, eloquent proof that the Romanian people is the oldest in the continent, if not in the world. As for the extent of the Thracians’ territory, Drăgan generously allows them almost half of Europe, centered, evidently, on the present-day space of Romania.<ref>Boia, Lucian, ''History and Myth in Romanian Consciousness'', Central European University Press, Budapest, 2001, p.105</ref>

The work of Densusianu begins with (I translate):

Behind the populations known in ancient times as Dacians and Getae there was for many thousands of years a genial, powerful and glorious nation, which much time before the Trojan times [the Trojan war, sung in Iliad], founded the first vast empire of the world, established the first cultural unity of Europe and established the basis of moral and material progress in West Asia and North Africa

From ro:Dacia preistorică:

Alexandru D. Xenopol stated "The theory of the author that Dacians have established the first civilization of the humankind shows that it is a product of chauvinism, not of science". Vasile Pârvan, in his monumental work, Getica, mentions the author and his work - "his fantastic novel Dacia preistorică, full of mythology and absurd philology, which from its publication has awakened wonder and unbounded enthusiasm among the Romanian archaeology dilettantes"<ref>Quoted by M. Babeș</ref>.

According to WP:SCIRS and WP:HISTRS I want to see many mainstream (i.e. not from the walled garden of Protochronism) secondary sources which support the Dacians-only continuity claim. Not one or two pieces of DNA study wherein the authors claimed that they had not studied enough people. Tgeorgescu (talk) 11:13, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Again, all you offer is... opinions, NO arguments. As for Lucian Boia, your leading man, and former University of Bucharest Secretary of Propaganda for the Communist Party (up to the Revolution), here's what Ioan-Aurel Pop (Istoria, adevarul si miturile, Ed Enciclopedica, 2014; first published in 2002), an advocate of the Daco-Roman theory and the recently elected President of the Romanian Academy, has to say "Lucian Boia is not able to read a document in Latin, Slavonic, or Greek.[...] His entire so-called expertise is restricted to the end of the nineteenth century and beginning of the twentieth century. He's not a historian of ancient times, he simply borrows from here and there. He even acknowledged that he does not apply historical methods in his books because the historical methods are outdated. [...]He is a falsifier of history." So, we can go back-and-forth on this until the cows sing the blues.
The DNA study I mention clearly states that it performed a "genetic analysis of a RELATIVELY LARGE NUMBER of samples of Boian, Zau and Gumelniţa cultures in Romania (n = 41) (M_NEO)", which is the period in question. It says that further studies are necessary to draw conclusions in regards mostly to the Late Bronze findings-- that is, ancient populations that are not related to any modern populations. That's to be expected-- Romanians were not the only people to ever inhabit those lands, other people came and left (like the Celts), they're just the only ones who have been living there continuously. Speaking of DNA studies, here's another recent one (from last year) that made waves at that time because of its surprising finds, DNA from ancient Egyptian mummies reveals their ancestry-- "Johannes Krause, a University of Tubingen paleogeneticist and an author of the study, said the major finding was that “for 1,300 years, we see complete genetic continuity.” Despite repeated conquests of Egypt, by Alexander the Great, Greeks, Romans, Arabs and Assyrians — the list goes on — ancient Egyptians showed little genetic change. “The other big surprise,” Krause said, “was we didn't find much sub-Saharan African ancestry.” What the study found was "that ancient Egyptians are most closely related to Neolithic and Bronze Age samples in the Levant, as well as to Neolithic Anatolian and European populations (Fig. 5a,b). When comparing this pattern with modern Egyptians, we find that the ancient Egyptians are more closely related to all modern and ancient European populations that we tested." This came as a shock to everyone EXCEPT readers of Densusianu. So here you have not one but TWO major DNA studies published in the last two years, both confirming Densusianu's version of ancient history. These are recent studies and it takes a while to enter the mainstream but eventually this new and (re)emerging version of history (closer to the truth) will win out. Too bad that the pace is made slower by irrational detractors. Wikipedia should allow these theories to be represented on its pages, lest one will start branding DNA studies as "fringe."--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 12:11, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
I did not say that the DNA studies would be fringe. I have stated that WP:SCIRS and WP:HISTRS demand many WP:MAINSTREAM WP:SECONDARY WP:SOURCES. Also, Densusianu's work is comparable to the hallucinations of a drugs addict, so whatever the DNA studies show, he cannot be right. Protochronists maintain that Dacians have conquered the Americas and Japan, so far goes their ludicrousness. Besides, Pop has stated on Acad. prof. univ. dr. Ioan-Aurel Pop - Despre falsificarea istoriei on YouTube that he has nothing against Boia dispelling the myths of National-Communist historiography, he only maintains that Boia is not an expert who can provide positive information about the history of Romania. In Pop's view Boia is good at removing the weeds from the garden of Romanian historiography—and he should stick to doing that (he is qualified for doing it, but not in other fields). "Wikipedia is behind the ball – that is we don't lead, we follow – let reliable sources make the novel connections and statements and find NPOV ways of presenting them if needed."[1] Wikipedia is a place where we kowtow to the academic mainstream. If you don't like doing that, you won't like it here. See WP:ABIAS. Since you cited Densusianu and Iosif Constantin Dragan as if they wrote reliable sources, you don't have the faintest idea of what WP:RS means. I suggest reading it thoroughly, and please take notes. Tgeorgescu (talk) 12:37, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Now you're using specious arguments: Densusianu = "protochronist" and since one "protochronist" said "X" then Densusianu must have also believed "X". Densusianu wrote nothing of the sort. In fact, I only linked to his work once in the entries that you deleted. Every author should be scrutinized, including ND, but one should be able to quote from a work (if fitting) without dismissing the entire work just because the author didn't get everything 100% right. Else, we'll be left with no books to quote/cite. And that also goes for all those ACADEMICS I just quoted.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 12:40, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
ND's work has been flat out rejected by all serious Romanian historians of the past 100 years. So it's not WP:RS, it is an exercise in mythomania. Also Dragan is not regarded as a scholar, he hardly published peer-reviewed articles in serious historical journals, so for us he isn't an academic. He was a propagandist for Fascism (Ion Antonescu), Protochronism and the like. Tgeorgescu (talk) 12:44, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Well, I disagree. Anyway, like I said before, there are actually two arguments here: 1) Densusianu is "fringe", 2) Thraco-Dacian continuity is "fringe". I don't need Densusianu to prove Dacian continuity, and to say (2) is true is just... preposterous. Recent DNA studies support the Thraco-Dacian continuity theory, famous historians and writers (including Romania's greatest, Mihai Eminescu) advocated it, contemporary university historians and linguists (not just Romanian, I linked to a Spanish one, too, just for good measure) also support it... It's never been "fringe" and will never be "fringe".--2602:301:7769:EF70:1D88:8886:4A13:2F40 (talk) 13:05, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

:Paraphrased from Jimbo Wales' September 2003 post on the WikiEN-l mailing list:

  • If a viewpoint is in the majority, then it should be easy to substantiate it with reference to commonly accepted reference texts;
  • If a viewpoint is held by a significant minority, then it should be easy to name prominent adherents;
  • If a viewpoint is held by an extremely small minority, it does not belong on Wikipedia, regardless of whether it is true or you can prove it, except perhaps in some ancillary article.
    — WP:DUE
Please note that Protochronists are not WP:MAINSTREAM, Densusianu is WP:CB and DNA studies aren't WP:SECONDARY. Tgeorgescu (talk) 13:09, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
I named plenty of "prominent adherents". I rest my case then. --Iovaniorgovan (talk) 13:16, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Protochronists, as a rule of thumb, do not count as academics, and even if some count, they certainly do not pass WP:RS. They fail WP:FRINGE—this is why we don't allow their claims inside Wikipedia. Our encyclopedia isn't an everything goes forum for crank science. Tgeorgescu (talk) 13:21, 17 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
You seem a little confused, to say the least, and you're resorting to all sorts of conflating and specious arguments (taint by association) to make your points, which only exposes the weakness of your arguments. Protochronism was a national/political movement that used a theory/idea, in this case Dacianism, for political purposes. As we've seen in history, just about ANY idea/theory can be used for political manipulation or economic gain. One can use atomic energy for benevolent purposes, another can use it to start wars... that doesn't make the science wrong. Just like in our case, Dacian continuity is simply a theory that has ZERO political value in and of itself. We're only concerned with historical truth here. Hope you can understand this much.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 08:51, 18 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
That's a red herring: Protochronists are unreliable as sources because they are ideologically tainted, they make fanciful claims, they are not published in mainstream peer-reviewed historical journals, such works are not cited approvingly by mainstream historians, their viewpoints are not taught as fact in faculties of history (yes, even in Romania), they have their walled garden publishing houses, these are all WP:REDFLAGs of fringe theories. So, unless you cite mainstream WP:HISTRS/WP:SCIRS, you cannot add that to our article. The problem that Protochronism/Dacians-only theory are fringe is not ours to fix, see WP:RGW.

The Bible is the voice of God, not the voice of scientists. If we want the voice of scientists, we ask the scientists. Most of them do advocate the Big Bang, abiogenesis, and evolution as the most visible means of how the world came to be. Whether or not this was God's doing is up to the reader to decide. If the scientists are mistaken, this has to be shown to them on their own grounds, which anti-evolution folks are not really doing, because they are not reading up on the same literature, they are not using the same standards and experiments, and they are not speaking in the same circles nor getting published in the same journals. If it does not walk like a duck, does not talk like a duck, and avoids ducks like the plague, there is little reason to assume its a duck. Or scientist, in this case. I'm not saying the anti-evolution folks are wrong, I'm just saying that they are not mainstream scientists. This is why they're not consulted for the voice of scientists. Now, they can be consulted for what they think if their views are notable.

Mutatis mutandis, this applies to your WP:SOURCES: these are not written by mainstream historians, so we don't use them. Tgeorgescu (talk) 11:41, 18 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
That's circular reasoning: If one adheres to the (strictly) Dacian continuity that makes him a "protochronist" and hence he is unreliable and ideologically tainted. Anyway, it looks like we've been going around in circles too. Okay then, no problem, I'll make sure to cite only mainstream sources, and if you don't think they're mainstream then feel free to delete them (and let me know why). However when/if I do that I may need to add a header, etc, for clarity.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 11:45, 18 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
p.s. you're really reaching there, mutatis mutandis.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 11:54, 18 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Here is why: the only people who champion the Dacians-only view are Protochronists (and other wannabe-scholars who are their fellow travelers), Protochronists write unreliable sources, so this is catch 22 for getting the Dacians-only claim in our article, which defaults to it being fringe. Tgeorgescu (talk) 11:55, 18 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
I get what you're saying but that doesn't make it right or true (your first statement above is patently false). The theory doesn't just magically default to "fringe", it does so because people like you deem themselves the absolute arbiters of what is "mainstream" and what isn't (if members of the Academy are not mainstream, what is?) Not that Wiki doesn't need policing, it does, but there should be a way to mitigate such "conflicts". Again, I'll just post mainstream sources (as mainstream as possible in my estimation) and hopefully we can reach a ceasefire.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 12:20, 18 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Well, don't cite any Protochronist (or fellow traveler) for a start. Cite only mainstream WP:RS compliant with WP:SCIRS or WP:HISTRS. And a thing to remember: Wikipedians do not have much regard for WP:PRIMARY sources. Tgeorgescu (talk) 17:54, 18 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Since you've spoken of Pop, he shares the same despise for Protochronism/Dacomania as Boia, only Pop does not consider it scientific/scholarly enough to even warrant discussing it very often. So, there is no quarrel about that between Pop and Boia. In other words, Pop has plonked the Dacomans. Tgeorgescu (talk) 01:57, 20 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Actually, I very much like Pop as a person. I think his intentions are good and he's a great patriot. And, clearly, he has vast knowledge of the subject but I think he's made a serious error in judgement which unfortunately lies at the very foundation of his argument. He bases his "Romanization" argument solely on ONE premise-- that only a relatively small Dacian population resided within the territories occupied by the Romans. He literally makes up the numbers, pulls them out of thin air (I don't have the link now but I can find it, if you're not familiar with his work; if I recall he says there were less than 100,000 Dacians left in Dacia Felix after the war), to make his argument and later he even admits that if the Dacian population was something close to a million then his argument would probably not work. Well, there are sources putting that Dacian population at more than a million (even after the conquest), with allegedly half a million moving South after the Roman withdrawal, so Pop's numbers are shoddy, which makes his elaborate argument very weak. I get it though, this Daco-Roman theory has been pounded into our heads for so long it's become dogma and now you have all these professors who have invested their entire lives into a theory, it's their and their families' livelihood and they're not about to admit that they were wrong all along, quit their jobs, and get in the unemployment line. This kind of change, which is surely coming, takes a bit of time. On the other hand you have the Sinaia Tablets, which are deemed by many as forgeries (a ridiculous argument), because they are lead copies of the (presumably) gold originals-- they are clearly authentic IN CONTENT. And I know people who have seen photographs of at least one gold original; one is actually made out of solid silver and you can find that online. Of course, this is not the kind of "evidence" you can bring to Wiki, but I'm just mentioning it because if ONE such gold tablet resurfaces then it's game over for the Daco-Romans. Mihai Vinereanu has some great articles on the Sinaia Tablets at limbaromana.org but that site is kinda slow sometimes.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 08:15, 20 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Ironic side note: Densusianu's original family name was Pop.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 09:55, 20 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
So you do support WP:FRINGE views with forged evidence. That's why it does not fly. The Sinaia Tablets argument is somewhere between absurd and hilarious. Tgeorgescu (talk) 10:13, 20 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
I didn't say I support the Sinaia Tablets as "scientific" evidence. I think I was pretty clear on that. However, if you study the CONTENT of the tablets in any kind of depth you may come to the conclusion that they're not fakes. I'm not talking about something to be PROVEN in any scientific ways. If you dismiss them out of hand, then good for you. Nothing to talk about here. Point is, the Daco-Roman theory has two main components: ethnic and linguistic. The ethnic component is already settled by DNA analysis which shows (both mtDNA and Y-DNA) no kinship with the Romans/Italians. And if there was no (or insignificant) mixing to change the language spoken "at home" from Dacian to Latin then no linguistic impact could've occurred. Latin was and remained simply an administrative language. This Latinization/Romanization didn't happen in Italy, why would it happen in Dacia? What about the free Dacians? Pop's answer to that is "somewhere between absurd and ridiculous". So the whole Roman-language borrowing hypothesis is hanging by a thread-- that was my point with the Sinaia Tablet resurfacing (but it could be anything, really). p.s. The Sinaia Tablets are ASSUMED to be forgeries, it's not been PROVEN that they are forgeries, so following the scientific method we have to leave this as an open question, until further study settles the matter one way or another. It's called "keeping an open mind", which is what the best of scientists do.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 10:32, 20 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

The WP:BURDEN is upon those who claim that those would be authentic, and this claim is flat out rejected by mainstream scholars. Besides, here inside Wikipedia we don't have to prove anything, we just have to quote WP:MAINSTREAM WP:SECONDARY WP:SOURCES. A WP:PRIMARY DNA study does not get you very far (even if it is true). Don't think of it as a major discovery, it is a minor footnote in this debate. Wikipedically you're clutching at straws.

The goal of the intelligent design movement is not to encourage critical thought, but to foment a revolution which would supplant evolutionary theory with intelligent design

— John E. Jones III, Kitzmiller v. Dover Area School District verdict

The purpose of Wikipedia isn't to foment revolution, but to take the WP:RS/AC for what it is. Tgeorgescu (talk) 11:55, 20 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Did you somehow miss the part where I said "Of course, this is not the kind of "evidence" you can bring to Wiki"?... It's just "talk", don't get your panties in a bunch.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 12:19, 20 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
It wasn't just about the Sinaia Tablets, but also about that DNA study and about this Daco-Roman theory has been pounded into our heads for so long it's become dogma and now you have all these professors who have invested their entire lives into a theory, it's their and their families' livelihood and they're not about to admit that they were wrong all along, quit their jobs, and get in the unemployment line. This kind of change, which is surely coming, takes a bit of time. Tgeorgescu (talk) 12:31, 20 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]
We're on the "talk" page, hence opinions... Over and out.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 00:28, 21 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

References

ANI notice

Due to too much WP:SOCKing at this page, I have opened a topic at Wikipedia:Administrators' noticeboard/Incidents#Proxies and banned users. Tgeorgescu (talk) 14:11, 3 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Please Move Extended Discussions On Your User Talkpages

This Page is getting too long with extended discussions on the Wiki policies, Sock investigations, and other miscellaneous subjects. This is not a forum. I recommend moving further discussions not directly related to this article to your respective user talk pages.TrixAreForKidsSillyRabbit (talk) 03:30, 9 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Agree, but the two "newbies" won't take no for an answer and I have no easy way of closing the discussion. Tgeorgescu (talk) 04:58, 9 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Oppose, the matters discussed are interrelated and reflect on the whole.--Iovaniorgovan (talk) 07:42, 10 May 2018 (UTC)[reply]