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January 9

It's cold drinks signs in Japan

I fail to understand the name of this category "https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/Category:It’s_cold_drink_signs_in_Japan" at Wikipedia Commons. What does "It's cold drink signs in Japan" mean? How is that supposed to be parsed? The original Japanese name doesn't help as I don't understand Japanese. JIP | Talk 16:48, 9 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

Looking at its parent category "Category:Food and drink signs in Japan", it's clear that the word "It's" should be removed. -- Jack of Oz [pleasantries] 18:58, 9 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
That category is a little strange, since it contains a Unicode "smartquote" character, which is somewhat against Commons consensus, and also appears to be a poor translation from Japanese into English... AnonMoos (talk) 00:27, 10 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/Category:Recommending_signs_in_Japan 89.172.38.145 (talk) —Preceding undated comment added 07:39, 10 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

I would put it to you that it is punctuation that is at fault, and that it should be read as, "Its Cold" Drinks sign in Japan. Thanks. Anton 81.131.40.58 (talk) 10:13, 10 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

"Its" is a possessive. What would "its cold" mean? His cold or her cold. But "its" cold? An inanimate object with a cold?? ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots12:13, 10 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
"Its cold" means "it's cold". Really not so difficult. -- Hoary (talk) 13:10, 10 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
No, it doesn't. "It's" is a contraction of "it is". "Its" is the possessive of "it". ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots16:33, 10 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
I'm sorry. I should have taken the trouble to write: "When Anton wrote '"Its Cold" Drinks sign in Japan', by 'Its Cold' he meant what is conventionally written 'It's cold'. Really not so difficult." -- Hoary (talk) 22:19, 10 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
That makes sense. And either way, the "it[']s" doesn't really make sense. Maybe a mistranslation. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots03:46, 11 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
So far as I bothered to look, the signs advertise cold drinks, or else drinks that can be assumed to be, or at least to include, cold drinks. The signs do not advertise the coldness of the drinks. So "'It's cold' drinks signs in Japan" wouldn't be appropriate. Plain "Cold drinks signs in Japan" would be appropriate. -- Hoary (talk) 13:10, 10 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
What he said, which is what I said up top. -- Jack of Oz [pleasantries] 22:37, 11 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
It appears the category was created by Benzoyl (talk · contribs) a couple of years ago. He's still active, on Commons at least,[1] so maybe you could ask him why he gave that category its name. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots13:13, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

January 10

grammatical aspect of "the more...,the more..."

Good evening, I would like to know the grammatical aspect of "the more...,the more...", please ? Thank you in advance.2A01:CB0C:38C:9F00:CDD4:2336:1EF3:78FB (talk) 20:50, 10 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

I'm not sure what you mean by "grammatical aspect", but I believe that the the in such an expression is descended from Old English þȳ (ðȳ), the instrumental (singular, masculine and neuter) case of the definite article . The example given in the OE primer I have at hand is "ðȳ māra wīsdom on lande wǣre, ðȳ we mā geðēode cūðon" ("The more languages we know, the more wisdom there will be in the land"). Deor (talk) 21:24, 10 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
It is indeed a baffling question. (Are you really asking about grammatical aspect here?) -- Hoary (talk) 22:22, 10 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
I don't think the question is about grammatical aspect. One can find the term "parallel comparative" used for this construction, for example in the Cambridge Preparation for the TOEFL® Test. In some languages the two "the"s aren't identical, e.g. "quanto... tanto..." (or "altrettanto...") in Italian and "je... desto..." in German. Maybe this can help find another more commonly used term for "the more... the more...", "the louder... the better...", etc. As in Deor's old example, the two parts can use different tenses, but that doesn't make the whole thing special in terms of grammatical aspect. ---Sluzzelin talk 22:53, 10 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
As for the construction in English, the term used for it in The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language (pp 1135–1137) is the correlative comparative construction. It has various syntactic complexities: the treatment in CGEL twice shades into blue ("specialist passages", as explained on p xii). -- Hoary (talk) 00:02, 11 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

January 11

Wonka's Latin

At the end of the good version of the movie, Willy Wonka yells at Charlie and Grandpa Joe something that sounds kind of like "Fax mentis incendium gloria cultum, et cetera et cetera. Memo bis punitor delicatum!" Google translate accepts most of this as legitimate Latin words but it makes no sense: "Fax glory of the fire service, and so on and so forth. Twice memo punishing nice!" He's lawyering with them over a contract, so the "memo" in there might be legit, if misplaced, as would the "punishing". Can anyone confirm the translation or improve it? The film is filled with literary quotes and also features other foreign languages spoken correctly, so there's some hope that this is not only proper Latin, but perhaps a quote. Matt Deres (talk) 02:54, 11 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

  • fax mentis incendium gloriæ — the flame of glory is the torch of the mind
  • nemo bis punitur pro eodem delicto — no one can be twice punished for the same offence
I see people quoting Wonka with both cultum and culpum (culpa?).—eric 05:55, 11 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
According to this and this the quote is:
'"I, the undersigned, shall forfeit all rights, privileges, and licenses herein and herein contained," et cetera, et cetera..."Fax mentis incendium gloria cultum,"[the torch of the mind lights the path to glory] et cetera, et cetera..."MEMO BIS PUNITOR DELICATUM"!! [I remember the spoiled punisher twice] It's ALL there! Black and white, clear as crystal!'
I leave it someone who actually speaks Latin to comment further. Alansplodge (talk) 09:10, 11 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
this site states fax mentis... is from a motto of the Earls of Granard (File:Bookplate-Earl of Granard.jpg) and also suggest:
  • Memo(r) bis punitur delictum — I am mindful (that) the crime is punished twice [or in two ways]
  • Memor non bis punitur peccatum — Remember, no sin is punished twice.
but i cannot find those two phrases anywhere else. The linked transcription has culpum but ignores for the translation. The author (a "huge Wonka fan", so i am sure trustworthy) also states the allusions were from David Seltzer and not part of Roald Dahl's original screenplay (here is a version w/ revisions by Seltzer, but no latin for the scene in question).—eric 13:52, 11 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
I love the refdesk. :) So, is it nemo or memo at the start of the second line? It could be that people are assuming the second, as I did, because "nemo" in English has a long 'e' while "memo" has a short one. That is, does he say "Nemo bis punitor delicatum!" meaning to say "Nemo bis punitor delictum!" (No one/offense is punished twice!)? Matt Deres (talk) 15:12, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
Definitely "memo" in every quote I can find. However, the usual pronunciation of "nemo" (in the UK at least) is with a short "e" (Nemo me impune lacessit) unless it's Captain Nemo. Alansplodge (talk) 18:35, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
I think Wilder clearly says "memo"(apparently youtube is blacklisted so can't link) and probably culpam tho he looks a little agitated. Nemo is just from a well known phrase that looked similar to the transcript. The Latin in the contract might not have been added by Seltzer, the script above is probably[2] his last revision, except for a small addition to the ending.—eric 00:38, 13 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
@Alansplodge "Nemo me impune lacessit" is a Latin phrase used by a handful of people and it pales in comparison to the visibility of a clownfish and/or the little boy with dreams. It's probably moot anyway; I've been listening and re-listening and I'm pretty sure it is "Memo" and probably "culpam" rather than "cultum". Matt Deres (talk) 21:11, 13 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
I defer to the greater wisdom of the Disney empire ;-) Alansplodge (talk) 21:53, 13 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
Yeah, there's an error somewhere in the writing, transcription, or performance of this passage. Temerarius (talk) 23:28, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
"Memo" isn't a Latin word, as far as I can tell (the English word "memo" is an abbreviation of "memorandum"). "Memor" is a Latin nominative singular adjective form, basically meaning "having a good memory" (and some related shades of meaning). AnonMoos (talk) 23:29, 13 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

January 12

Yakut/Sakha transliteration/transcription

Does anyone at Wikipedia speak Yakut/Sakha and would be willing to transliterate a few words for me? I have created a transliteration via autotools but they are notoriously unreliable when represented in non-Roman characters and unfortunately there is no support for this language at WP:TRLA... -Thibbs (talk) 02:11, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

Link Yakut and Sakha. Thanks. Anton 81.131.40.58 (talk) 10:05, 13 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
Do you have the source text? If you can post it here, we will be able to simply replace the Cyrillic letters with the corresponding Latin ones indicated in Yakut language#Writing system. While I'm not sure how official that transliteration standard is, it is akin to what is used to write or transliterate other Turkic languages, and I guess the result will be perfectly readable. --Theurgist (talk) 02:02, 14 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

La milie, de Borabora

What does “La milie” or “La miliee” mean in French? Found here. — KAVEBEAR (talk) 06:05, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

It should be la milice, "the militia". The final e in the image caption is damaged.Deor (talk) 06:20, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
Thanks! KAVEBEAR (talk) 10:59, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

dans la partie la moins noble de son individu

Can someone translate “pieds dans la partie la moins noble de son individu" into English? Is it correct to say kick in the groin? KAVEBEAR (talk) 11:01, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

"La partie la moins noble de son individu" seems to have been a rather clichéd euphemism for a person's posterior in French. Fut.Perf. 13:56, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
Is there a reliable source translating this term that I can use? KAVEBEAR (talk) 17:45, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
It's a quote from Paul Féval, fils in his 1925 adventure novel series D'Artagnan contre Cyrano de Bergerac from Volume I: Le chevalier mystère (p. 30):
"...il dut faire volte-face et présenta à la botte de son terrible assaillant la partie... la moins noble de son individu" - perhaps "he had to turn around and presented his boot to his terrible assailant... on the least noble part of his person presented to the boot of his terrible assailant... the least noble part of his person". I had to take my French O-level twice, so someone else might do better.
An English translation of the series, The Years Between was published in 1928, The Years Between: The Mysterious Cavalier is available to buy but I couldn't find one that can be read online, probably thanks to the US copyright laws.
Alansplodge (talk) 18:19, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
I'm not sure the D'Artagnan novel is the first or original attestation of the phrase; several you can find on the net (including the one Kavebear is probably thinking of) seem to predate it. That's why I assumed it's just a common cliché. (And the sentence you quote wouldn't be "presented his boot to his terrible assailant…", but "presented to the boot of his terrible assailant…", i.e. had to take a kick in the butt from him). Fut.Perf. 18:30, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
Ah yes Fut.Perf., that makes more sense, thank you. You're also right about the chronology; I was looking at the same phrase in a much later book. It must be a French idiom then. Alansplodge (talk) 18:37, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
I'd say a rare idiom rather than a common one? NGram shows the phrase "partie la moins noble" back to the beginning of their corpus in the early 19th century but it is not a common phrase at all in the corpus, and the version with "de son individu" on the end doesn't appear at all. What's more, many examples in the corpus aren't using it in this same metaphorical sense - the first few hits refer to things like "the least noble section of the Polish police," "[disease linked to] the least noble part of the brain", "the body is the least noble part of human nature," "hand-to-hand fighting is the least noble part of the profession [of war]." However round about the time of KAVEBEAR's book I did spot another use in the same sense: ...c'était une chaise cannée — et hérissa d'un seul mouvement tous les piquants de son dos qui, évidemment, piquèrent la partie la moins noble de ce cher fonctionnaire... (it was a cane chair - and every movement ruffled each quill against his back which, obviously, pricked the least noble part of this beloved official) 70.67.193.176 (talk) 17:38, 14 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

Is the best direct translation “a kick in the least noble is part of the person” or “a kick in the least noble is part of the individual”? KAVEBEAR (talk) 17:12, 16 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

Force from

Is "force from" a genuine usage? If so can I get a webpage having some examples? I see this in Melitta Schenk Gräfin von Stauffenberg: "But in 1936 she was forced from her job as aeronautical engineer because of her paternal grandfather's Jewish origins." -- 13:48, 12 January 2020 Jay

What an odd question. And administartors are usually expected to sign their posts. There's plenty of usage of that particular string in both news outlets and literature. All the best! ——SN54129 14:07, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
A Dictionary of the English Language: In which the Words are Deduced from Their Originals etc. Volume II (1805 edition) p. 287 by Samuel Johnson: "IMMOVABLE. adj. 1. Not to be forced from its place". Alansplodge (talk) 15:13, 12 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
Thanks for the references. It did not occur to me to search News or Books in Google. I was just not getting any examples nor getting the usage from dictionary sites. I haven't used "forced from" nor seen its usage, hence the query. And sorry for missing the signature, it has not happened before. Jay (talk) 13:02, 13 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
No problem at all Jay, I see I probably sounded snarkier than it was intended to  :) ——SN54129 13:33, 13 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
"Forced from" is another way to say "forced out of". ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots05:48, 14 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
"forced from office" is a common term, e.g. BBC, ABC (Australia), Washington Post. I yearn for the day I hear those words in connection with the POTUS. Clarityfiend (talk) 07:30, 14 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

January 15

Pedantic correctness vs. commonsense phraseology

The following is an amended excerpt from an actual exchange on a user's talk page, about the editing of a certain article:

  • It's clearly incorrect to me (who knows quite a bit about Mongolian tiddlywinks), but I can understand where you're coming from.

Now, a pedant might require that the highlighted word "knows" be instead "know", as it's a first-person reference. Hence:

  • It's clearly incorrect to me (who know quite a bit about Mongolian tiddlywinks …,

but that sounds, well, jarringly wrong.

I know one could rephrase the sentence to remove this issue, but I want to know whether the sentence as it stands is one of those occasions where a judicious overlooking of the rules would be justified as being in the best interests of all concerned.

Do we have an article on the tension between pedantic correctness and commonsense phraseology?

Another case is: "Who's there?" – "It's me" (rather than "It's I").

Thanks. -- Jack of Oz [pleasantries] 23:12, 15 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

You might stumble upon an appropriate term in: linguistic prescription, linguistic description, linguistic purism (24 varieties), or linguistic purism in English. Would Prestige (sociolinguistics) apply to colloquialism?—eric 00:50, 16 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
JackofOz -- in a Latin relative clause of this type, a 1st person singular verb would be used, but the tendency in English in recent centuries is to default to third person verbs, except sometimes when the verb is "to be". (But this doesn't have much to do with "It's I"/"it's me"...) AnonMoos (talk) 02:03, 16 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

Jack, my intuition is different from yours, so I can't really relate to the question. To me, "know" sounds much more natural. Any pedantry is just a side benefit, and wouldn't have occurred to me if you hadn't reported your own intuition. --Trovatore (talk) 02:45, 16 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
surely it’s “I who know” and “me who knows.” If someone said “me who know” I would be waiting for them to remove their human costume. Temerarius (talk) 11:08, 16 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]
Or maybe their Tonto costume. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots11:51, 16 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

January 16

French translation

Can someone help translate Je vous laisse d’ailleurs le soin, si vous le jugez convenable, de prévenir Tuarii que si elle nous crée la moindre difficulté sa pension lui est retirée, car elle ne la doit qu’à notre extrême bienveillance en sa faveur from French? KAVEBEAR (talk) 17:08, 16 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]

leave you besides the care, if you judge it suitable, to warn Tuarii that if she creates us the least difficulty her pension is withdrawn to her, because she owes it only to our extreme benevolence in her favor. Anton. 81.131.40.58 (talk) 18:11, 16 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]