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April 27

Fantasy and sci-fi hottest spot

Which nations are arguably best for their Science fiction novels? and which nations are arguably best for their fantasy fiction novels? like Sweden, Denmark and Norway and England are arguably best for their mystery and crime fiction novels. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 65.95.106.38 (talk) 14:44, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

I'm not sure any nations have special reputations for excellence in science fiction or fantasy novels. As you recognize, this is a very subjective question. There are many resources that compile "best" science fiction and fantasy works, often in short story form and often for a given year. Here on Wikipedia, see The Best of Science Fiction for an older example of such a work. A quick look at the authors from that work looks like they're mostly American and English. You could refer to resources such as those and make your own judgment based on the nationalities of the authors. Keep in mind that these anthologies will reflect the biases of their editors and compilers, however. Some may explicitly cover the "best of American science fiction" or something, but others may focus on a single country without saying so. The short version? Find fantasy or sci fi works that you like and look for a pattern in authors' nationalities. --BDD (talk) 18:33, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

The United States IMO for science fiction. It took widespread root the earliest there and spawned the greatest number of authors, good, bad or otherwise (thank you Hugo Gernsback). Plus the fact that Robert Heinlein was an American would skew the ranking just by itself, and another of the "Big Three" was too. Clarityfiend (talk) 21:04, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

As for fantasy, it's not as clear cut, but I'm inclined to go with England/Great Britain. They've got by far the two biggest names - J. R. R. Tolkien and J. K. Rowling - plus Terry Pratchett. Skimming quickly through Category:American fantasy writers, the US has L. Frank Baum, H. P. Lovecraft and Clark Ashton Smith. Clarityfiend (talk) 22:19, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Polygamy in US and Canada

I don't understand. Polygamy in USA and Canada is illegal but still some Canadians and Americans do polygamy without being getting caught by the law. Hollywood actors are the best examples I know for this situation and yet they get caught. What if a Muslim man wants to do polygamy because for health issues or economic issues and same thing other men and other women of other faiths? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 65.95.106.38 (talk) 15:05, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

I think you might misunderstand what polygamy is. Why not read the article? Dismas|^(talk) 16:18, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

It's only illegal if you are legally married to multiple people at once. One way around this is to have, at most, one official marriage, recorded by the state. You can then have as many unofficial marriages as you want, even having names legally changed, if desired.

For those actually committing bigamy (multiple official legal marriages at once), the governments remain reluctant to prosecute, since this results in breaking up families and putting many people "on the dole", who were self-supporting, and this looks very bad according to public opinion, especially with video of crying children being taken away from their parents. StuRat (talk) 17:07, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Personally, I think the way to fix this is to completely decouple a civil marriage (the legal, official one) from a religious marriage. Indeed, it seems to me that the separation of church and state requires this. The legal one can be called a "civil partnership" or "civil union", if preferred, and the state can define the rules there. As for a religious marriage, the churches, temples, mosques, etc., can decide the rules there. If your church says you can marry multiple people, or even trees, that's fine, but it will have no legal meaning. StuRat (talk) 17:13, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

The one legal argument against polygamy that makes some sense is that it can cause unbalanced numbers of unmarried women and men, leading to social problems. This happens in polygamous communities, and they handle it by having many of the excess single gender leave the community. This wouldn't work on a national level, though, unless you allow massive emigration of the excess gender. However, this problem exists whether marriages are official or unofficial, so it doesn't make sense to only put restrictions on official marriages. On the other hand, policing who everyone is sleeping with is both impossible and repugnant. So, what are we left with ? Perhaps just hope that polygamy doesn't become so widespread and one-way as to cause major disruptions. Based on it's currently lack of popularity in North America, I don't see it as much of a risk. StuRat (talk) 17:22, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

All liberal states allow emigration, heh. North America, by the way, as a migration sink, has a chronic surplus of bachelors (or so I've been told). —Tamfang (talk) 19:22, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

I'm curious as to what "health issues" are ameliorated by polygamy. LANTZY^TALK 19:27, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Perhaps the OP is referring to a man who wants to have biological children (or more biological children) but is unable to because his wife has low fertility (allegedly anyway as the assumption often seems to be made the wife is at fault without testing). While fertility treatments may help and using a surrogate mother and perhaps an egg donor is another option in the modern era, tradionally at least marrying another (generally younger) woman was another in some cultures. Nil Einne (talk) 20:14, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Hollywood actors? Clarityfiend (talk) 03:56, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

I wonder if "health issues" would largely be STDs. If you want multiple sexual partners and don't want to risk STDs, I suppose that polygamy with people who were previously virgins would prevent STDs as long as neither you nor your spouses are unfaithful. Nyttend (talk) 21:58, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

No one in the US or Canada is a "true" polygamist, because it's against the law in every state. A guy with several "wives", still only has one "real" wife in the eyes of the law. The others are just cohabitants. And that's where trouble can arise - because in some states, some period of cohabitation (7 years, in standard lore), qualifies the cohabitant as a "common law wife". Once that happens, the guy is a bigamist and is in violation of the law. Whether the law goes after him or not depends on other circumstances. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 18:00, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

I hope that's not legal advice, and even if it is, I find it extremely hard to believe that someone can separate from their spouse, not divorce for whatever reason, shack up with someone else and down the track find themself at risk of being tarred as a bigamist despite never having gone through any form of marriage ceremony with the new party or even purporting to be married to that party. -- ♬ Jack of Oz ♬ ^{[your turn]} 19:44, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Shia Islam in Pakistan and India

Which ethnic groups mostly practice Jafari Shia and Ismaili Shia in Pakistan and which ethnic groups mostly practice Jafari Shia and Ismaili Shia in India? Which part of Pakistan has the most Shia Jafaris and which part of Pakistan has the most Shia Ismailis? Which part of India has the most Shia Jafaris and which part of India has the most Shia Ismailis? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 65.95.106.38 (talk) 15:13, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Have you seen the articles Islam in India and Islam in Pakistan? If they don't directly answer your question, they will provide a launching point for you research. --Jayron32 03:51, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

The vast majority of at least the latter are from GujaratLihaas (talk) 11:44, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Messianic Secret

This is a question about the article "Messianic Secret," which I find possibly incomplete in a way that may or may not be deemed significant. From my point of view, as a student of literary theory and criticism, rather than of biblical studies, it is significant; but I refer to the judgment of others. My main object is not to have an answer sent to me (though that would be OK), but to have the question referred to those more knowledgeable on the subject, for possible expansion of the article.

The omission that I notice is this. The article identifies the "Messianic Secret" theory as originating in 1901, commanding considerable attention for the next quarter-century, but then by mid-century or a little later pretty much fallen out of favor among biblical scholars. This surprised me, because it was in "The Genesis of Secrecy" (1979) by Frank Kermode, a highly regarded literary critic, that I first encountered the idea. He speaks as if the theory has by that point become well established as a standard bit of knowledge--no longer a mere theory--and proceeds from there to apply it in the larger field of literary criticism.

My questions: 1) Is any of this worth mentioning in terms of the larger influence of Wrede's 1901 theory? 2) What is the current status of Kermode's book in literary circles? That is, has it too now become largely discredited or ignored?

Thank you. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 76.221.212.206 (talk) 15:40, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

If you make a link to the article ("Messianic Secret"), you increase the likelihood that someone will read the article, and you increase the likelihood that someone will try to answer your question. Also, here is a link to the article "Frank Kermode". Instructions on linking are at Wikipedia:Manual of Style/Linking, which you can reach with the shortcut WP:LINK.

—Wavelength (talk) 21:05, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

In debt – in credit?

If you owe money to a creditor, you're in debt. Do we have any analogous term for the state you're in when you're owed money – i.e. "in credit"?

Specifically, we can say that someone who is unlikely to pay off one's debts is "deeply in debt" – what can we say of someone who is unlikely to have their loans repaid?

Alfonse Stompanato (talk) 16:15, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

The Language Desk would be a good place to ask this. One term used for something similar is "liquidity". That is, if you have cash on hand, you are "liquid", while if you have it loaned out to many others, you suffer from "illiquidity". StuRat (talk) 17:25, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Haven't heard "in credit", but budgets etc. can be said to be "in surplus", and the phrase "in the black" contrasts to "in the red"... AnonMoos (talk) 18:15, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

'In credit' is used widely here in the Uk to mean you have more a positive amount of money in your bank. If you have credit that is unlikely to be repaid you might call it Bad debt. ny156uk (talk) 19:13, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

The next sucker beneficiary of my sure fire "investment opportunity". Clarityfiend (talk) 03:41, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

"Solvent" or "in the money".John Z (talk) 18:36, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

"To those who remain solvent, I say salut !" (I hope this doesn't precipitate a shower of puns.)StuRat (talk) 22:26, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Is the bible a novel?

79.148.233.179 (talk) 19:19, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

At a minimum, a novel is a long prose narrative. The Bible fails this test, as it is not a single narrative, and it includes non-narrative components. Marco polo (talk) 19:31, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

The bible is a lot of things. Most of the bible is organized topically: Parts of it tell an historical narrative (much of the Pentateuch, as well as the Samuel-Kings-Chronicles section). The next section are books of "wisdom", that is Proverbs-Ecclesiastes. There the Psalter, which is basically a hymnal or song book. There's the books of the prophets, which are exhortations to the Nation of Israel to clean up their act or face God's wrath. In the New Testament, there's the four Gospels, followed by Acts (which is the second volume of Luke's gospel) which cover the narrative aspect. The Epistles are letters from Paul and a few other early church leaders to various churches instructing them on proper Christian life. The last book in the New Testament is Revelation, which is a dense symbolic book, the purpose of which is clouded but which seems to, among many scholars, be a narrative of the end times (see Eschatology). Some books, or sections of books, do have a novel-like quality in that they have a clear narrative. Other parts, however, are poetry, or songs, or letters, or any number of other sorts of writing. --Jayron32 19:54, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

You may also wish to note that it was first recorded on paper long after most events happened, then re-written and edited by many over the centuries. It would be nice if a "Factual Bible" were written. It would be smaller, but at least would contain mostly factual entries.--Canoe1967 (talk) 20:13, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Although there are arguments made that none of it is historical narrative, but rather a work of fiction to be used for educational purposes.    → Michael J Ⓣ Ⓒ Ⓜ 20:59, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Fiction is a word that is a bit loaded. It may be best to say that parts of it are allegorical. That is, they espouse truth, but the truth comes in the lessons taught, not in the narrative itself, i.e. Jesus' parables. --Jayron32 21:39, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

(after ec) I don't think you'll find any reliable source claiming that the Bible is a single work of fiction for any purpose whatever. Parts of it may well be as you describe - Job, in particular, and probably most if not all of Jonah and Daniel, along with chunks of Genesis. But (for example) when 2 Kings talks about Tiglath-Pileser III, or 1 Maccabees refers to Alexander the Great, it may not be a reliable historical document, but it is clearly intended as an historical account. (Contrast the book of Judith, which depicts an invasion, and a location, which as far as we can tell never existed.) And of course genres such as poetry (Psalms, Song of Songs) and wisdom literature (Proverbs, Wisdom of Solomon, Ecclesiastes) are not susceptible to the distinction of truth and fiction. AlexTiefling (talk) 21:43, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Perhaps "inspired by a true story" is the closest to the way a modern author would put it. StuRat (talk) 21:47, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Parts of the Bible which could be called rather "novelistic" include the Book of Esther, and (in the Apocrypha), the Book of Tobit... AnonMoos (talk) 01:34, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

"I believe the entire Bible literally, even the parts that contradict the other parts." - Ned Flanders - StuRat (talk) 21:47, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

The Bible has also perhaps the earliest example of detective fiction. Not just one but two tales.85.52.87.200 (talk) 23:21, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

The Bible is an anthology, not a novel. It's also not very novel, as all or most of it is at least 19 centuries old. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 04:05, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Well, actually, this question is much more interesting than it looks at first glance (to me, at least), and none of the answers given so far really satisfy me that the bible is not a novel. In effect, the question is unanswerable without a clear definition of what exactly we mean by "novel", and such a definition will always be arbitrary and slightly fuzzy around the edges. Let's have a look at some of the criteria mentioned so far and see how they do when looking at books that unquestionably are novels:

• "author's intent" as a concept hasn't been used by literary theory for at least a hundred years now; I may be glossing over some minor outlying theories, but you'd have to go back all the way to Wilhelm Dilthey to find a theory of literature that was based on author's intent and that was widely accepted at the time it was posited. Basically, these days we don't care about author's intent because 1. we will never know for sure what exactly an author intended and 2. we don't care either way - we don't look at what an author wanted to accomplish, we can only look at what he actually did accomplish.
• The first point already takes care of passages that are "clearly intended as an historical account", but historical accounts are generally not a problem - each and every historical novel contains passages that read like history textbooks. The same goes for poems, letters etc - a great many novels incorporate pages upon pages of poetry.
• The above takes care of the bible's "anthology" aspect, but what about multiple authors? This is admittedly unusual, but not unheard of - just look at Luther Blissett (nom de plume).
• No single narrative and a rather long timeframe with various independent stories? Not unusual either - every family saga-type novel does that, plus the bible kind of has God as a recurring character and tells various tangentially related stories which all sort of illustrate God's character (not unllike Stephen Dedalus in Ulysses, come to think of it).

So what does that leave us with? In general, we define a novel as one of a set of narrative works that are part of a certain literary tradition and that share a certain ill-defined set of characteristics, but as long as the work in question is undeniably part of the same literary tradition it can generally get away with breaking any of the established conventions that seem to define a novel. The problem with the bible is that it is not part of that tradition because it was written several hundred years earlier - we might call it a proto-postmodernist novel, but that would be stretching the definition quite a bit. On the other hand, if the bible didn't already exist and was written today (I'm thinking of Borges' Pierre Menard, Author of the Quixote here), we would almost certainly classify it as a postmodernist novel. We don't usually do that, but that is strictly a question of established tradition - there's really nothing inherent in the text itself that makes the bible unquestionably not a novel. Ferkelparade π 13:15, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Were the Neanderthal human?

79.148.233.179 (talk) 19:25, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

It depends on what you mean by human. They were much farther genetically from modern humans than any group of modern humans is from any other group. Scientists disagree over whether Neanderthals were part of the same species as modern humans. However, they were certainly in the same genus, and they would probably seem to us more human than "animal." Marco polo (talk) 19:37, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

See the "Classification" section of our Neanderthal article for further discussion. Neanderthals could reproduce with Homo sapiens, which suggests they could be considered fundamentally human. However, this isn't set in stone; horses and donkeys can reproduce (creating a mule or, rarely, a hinny), despite being of different species. If you're looking for a yes or no answer, I'd say yes, but I'd add that many people much more informed than me would say no. Taxonomy isn't an exact science. --BDD (talk) 20:43, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Neanderthals and modern humans did sometimes mate, but it seems exceedingly likely that Neanderthals lacked the final biological refinements of human language capacity into its fully modern form which apparently took place about 50,000-75,000 years ago (what is known archaeologically as the "Great leap forward" or behavioral modernity). AnonMoos (talk) 01:30, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

According to professor David Christian in his lecture course Big History, Neanderthals and homo sapiens were distinct species but linked to a common ancestor. Our ancestors (homo sapien sapiens is the technical term I think) competed with Neanderthals and won; that is the most accepted theory at this time. What humans had (which Neanderthals may have lacked) was what Christian described as learning which accumulates. Humans, by speech, could pass on what was learned, which accelerated the pace of knowledge. Humans were forever learning new tricks which enabled us to exploit our environment better, to live in new places; Neanderthals, even though they constructed tools, could not keep up.--Tomwsulcer (talk) 02:54, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

It's pretty meaningless to say that "Neanderthals and homo sapiens were distinct species but linked to a common ancestor"; the same can be said of butterflies and dinosaurs or any two species. The crucial point is how distant the common ancestor is, and in the case of Homo neanderthalensis and Homo sapiens, the answer is "quite recent". Since neanderthals were in the genus Homo, they were human, unless one makes the question tautological by capriciously asserting that only Homo sapiens were human. - Nunh-huh 11:31, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Except by merging with "humans". They interbred, and it's very likely that most people alive today have a Neanderthal ancestor. It's merely arbitrary that we call ourselves humans and not the continuation of the Neanderthal line. -- ♬ Jack of Oz ♬ ^{[your turn]} 05:27, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

JackofOz -- The latest results are that Africans generally have no Neanderthal DNA, while non-Africans have 4% or less Neanderthal DNA, so under those circumstances it's really not "arbitrary" to state that present-day humanity is a continuation of non-Neanderthal modern humans (traditionally called "Cro-Magnons" in a European context), and not a continuation of Neanderthals. Also, Neanderthals had some specialized anatomical features which are not found in modern people. And on the cognitive side, Neanderthals probably had a communicative capacity which was far in advance of chimpanzees, but which fell significantly short of the complexities and capabilities of human languages as we know them today. AnonMoos (talk) 11:14, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Leave Africans out of the picture and the remaining population of Earth is still "most people", as I said. People are usually more than happy to announce they've discovered they have a Comanche or Basque or Egyptian great-great-great-great-grandmother or some other unexpected ancestor. Well, pretty much all non-Africans can be proud to proclaim their Neanderthal/Cro-Magnon heritage, too. If they had names, and we knew the names of those ancestors, there'd be no holding back. Let not their anonymity become their graves. Grok-Snig, you live on in me, and the Ref Desk answers that come from this pen are those of a Neanderthal. I would have thought that should be pretty obvious by now. :) -- ♬ Jack of Oz ♬ ^{[your turn]} 20:53, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

That's nice, in a retro-hypothetico-sentimentalesque way, but it doesn't change the scientific numbers, or the fact that skeletons of current-day people differ in a number of ways from those of Neanderthals, etc. When the 1-4% number was revealed, one of the news stories had a quote from a scientist who said that it seemed that the modern humans had interbred with Neanderthals just about enough to incorporate genes incorporating resistance to northern or non-African diseases and parasites, and not too much more... AnonMoos (talk) 01:38, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

"retro-hypothetico-sentimentalesque" - why, how sweet, AnonMoos, that's the nicest thing anyone's ever said about me. A perfect word for a melancholy autumn Sunday afternoon.

Sure, our body shapes have changed (it's been a very long time, after all, since all this happened), but that doesn't deny the genetic relationships between them and us. We all have countless lines of descent; for most of us, one of those lines leads back to Neanderthals (call them what you like). You can't accept the 1-4% DNA evidence on the one hand, and then deny any familial connection on the other hand. -- ♬ Jack of Oz ♬ ^{[your turn]} 02:09, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

You're still kind of missing the point -- the rise of Anatomically modern humans occurred many thousands of years before a few of them mated with Neanderthals, so the anatomy of current-day humans is simply not due to evolution from a Neanderthal base.... AnonMoos (talk) 21:11, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Missing the point - pfehr! (or however one spells an expression of mock disdain) I make my own points, thank you very much. None of these second-hand points for me, no sirree. You never know where they've been.  :) -- ♬ Jack of Oz ♬ ^{[your turn]} 22:17, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

List of countries by life expectancy

Why does Spain have the highest life expectancy in the EU?79.148.233.179 (talk) 19:29, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Because people who live in Spain tend to live the longest of all EU nations. --Jayron32 19:46, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

It's tied with Sweden, and only 2.4 months ahead of metro France. I wouldn't have guessed Spain was at the top myself, but most of those countries are so close statistically that it's just an exercise in opinion, at least from what we can offer here, to guess why one is better than the other. All the usual stuff... health care, obesity, endemic disease, smoking, accident rates, those are the big killers. I'm not so sure Spain's very different from many other EU countries in those regards. (ec) Jayron's response is gonna be the most accurate in this entire thread too. Shadowjams (talk) 19:50, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

In addition to what Jayron and SJ have said, I would note according to the article it's actually only Spanish females who live the longest of all EU nations. They are also the tied (with Switzerland) third in the world. Spanish males only live the third longest of all EU nations and 13th in the world. In addition those are UN estimates for 2005-2010. Right below them is the CIA World Factbook estimates for 2011 where Spain is below Italy and metropolitan France (in overall terms). Nil Einne (talk) 20:07, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Spanish males live the second longest of all EU nations according to the article. Apparently you counted Norway as an EU country, which it is not. 88.9.107.228 (talk) 21:17, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

If they are accurate, those statistics are interesting, because Spain has a relatively high (for Europe) percentage of daily smokers. Thinking about how the Spanish lifestyle differs from that of other European countries, I wonder whether moderate daily alcohol consumption and regular consumption of oily fish might have something to do with it. But that's just speculation. Marco polo (talk) 20:14, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

List of countries by cigarette consumption per capita confirms half of your point. Different food is a commonly cited argument. 88.9.107.228 (talk) 21:19, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Statistics are curious things. Not to be humourous, but some stats like that are similar to "Why was the number 12 drawn on the lottery more than others in March?" type thing. More research can explain why, but stats usually just state results of events.--Canoe1967 (talk) 20:22, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Noting that both Spain and Switzerland were neutral in WW2, perhaps avoiding all the stresses of that war helped them live a bit longer. (The Spanish Civil War was also brutal, but most people old enough then to be stressed by it would be dead now, in any case.) If so, you could expect this advantage to soon disappear, as those old enough to be stressed by WW2 also die off. StuRat (talk) 21:16, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Additional reasons: the weather is better, sun is good for you, at least less people commit suicide here in Spain. Spain is less radioactive than, for example, Germany. Less population density is good for your health. 88.9.107.228 (talk) 21:21, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

I don't think sunlight is actually good for you, other than helping you get vitamin D₃, which you can get from food and vitamin pills anyway. The downside is skin cancer and skin aging. However, if the weather encourages people to exercise more and be less stressed out, then it might help that way, provided they wear sunblock. StuRat (talk) 22:35, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

I don't believe you get vitamine D from the sun. You always get it from the food, the sun just makes you process it, even if you only get a little of it. However, my point here is that it makes you less depressed, mental health is a huge help when it comes to keeping physically healthy too. 88.9.107.228 (talk) 22:48, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

That would be why I said "helping you get" as opposed to "magically delivers vitamin D that materializes directly from photons". :-) StuRat (talk) 23:22, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Yeah? And why did you say "you can get from food and vitamin pills"? There is no "can get" here. You get them from the food, the sun just makes you process it. Just ask Jayron if you don't believe me, he seems to know such kind of thing, and it's kind of idle regarding the present question. XPPaul (talk) 00:23, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Historically, food only contained the precursor, 7-dehydrocholesterol, which then required exposure to UV light to form vitamin D₃. However, both vitamin pills and foods supplemented with D₃ bypass the need for sunlight. StuRat (talk) 00:46, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

I don't believe you are right on this one. Vitamin D supplements do not improve the vitamin D level absorption by your body, it only improves the level of vitamin D in your blood, and it can be even detrimental. So, children: do not go with StuRat's suggestion and keep a healthy diet + healthy amount of exposure to sunlight. XPPaul (talk) 12:26, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Where is ths famed contribution from Jayron? -- ♬ Jack of Oz ♬ ^{[your turn]} 21:53, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

It was removed here: [1]. I put it back. --Jayron32 23:18, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

It begs the question: why do they live longer? (even if it's just a little bit more than the French). XPPaul (talk) 00:25, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Wikipedea Has An Article About Everything: the Mediterranean diet has been associated with increased longevity for a while now. See also the French paradox, much of which could also apply to Spain. The article emphasises diet but also mentions "a study by Scarabin et al. (2003) comparing activity and health statistics in men from Toulouse and Belfast that shows although the total levels of physical activity are similar for both cities, French men performed more physical activity in their leisure time, possibly accounting for decreased incidence of CHD compared to Northern Ireland." which is thought to be because "the effects of good weather will encourage outdoor leisure pursuits". Finally see Wine and health. Alansplodge (talk) 14:42, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Right, but as our article says, that usually includes parts of Italy, and Greece. If we go by the UN table we're using, Italy isn't too bad in terms of the EU. Greece however is barely better then fish and chips with mushy peas or boiled to bits food (yes I know that an extreme exaggeration) UK. I agree with Shadowjams and Canoe, you can come up with random stuff, but given the small difference, proving anyone is the 'reason' is impossible and pointless anyway. We could just as well say it's the Siesta (which according to our article those have some suggested health benefits). Or you could even come with random other wacky stuff like maybe the females benefit somewhat from the lower average age of death of the males or watching bullfighting has health benefits. Nil Einne (talk) 16:05, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

When comparing measurements, it is difficult to overstate how important it is to think about their uncertainty. A life expectancy is a forecast of how long people are expected to live - this clearly isn't something we can know very precisely. According to Life expectancy#Calculating life expectancies, they are estimated using a number of different pieces of information via a non-trivial process, and the information and methods used depend on what is available, and what the estimates are intended to be used for. The availability and reliability of information will obviously vary from one country to another, and you can see on the list you linked to, that the UN and CIA estimates frequently differ by several years (OK, we are talking about slightly different time periods, but that shouldn't make too much difference) and the countries are in a completely different order. In fact, from a quick glance at the sources, they don't appear to make any attempt to quantify the uncertainty of the results. To my (physics-trained) mind, this suggests that you should treat them with extreme scepticism. I mean, nobody is going to dispute that people in Japan live longer than those in Mozambique, but trying to conclude anything from the tiny differences between Western European countries is probably fruitless. 81.98.43.107 (talk) 17:45, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

It is also important to keep in mind that these are "period life expectancies". That means they assume no changes in mortality in the future, which is obviously not a realistic assumption. To determine whether someone born today in Spain can be expected to longer than someone born today in the UK, say, you need to make some assumptions about future mortality improvements. If you make different assumptions about those, then you could end up getting completely different results to the ones suggested by the period life expectancies. You should also remember that the life expectancy for a country doesn't apply to the individuals in that country - if you want to know the life expectancy of a particular individual, you need to take into account things like wealth, education, lifestyle, medical history, family medical history, etc. (there are some bizarre factors that have been shown to have a measurable impact on life expectancy - the month of your birth, for instance). --Tango (talk) 00:39, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Corporate lawsuit/criminal records

I was wondering where I could look for the records of corporate crimes and lawsuits. For example say business X is found guilty of Y, where is this recorded and how can I access it? I am seeking the records for all large businesses at least in the developed world. Thank you, 65.95.23.172 (talk) 22:24, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Lexis nexis. XPPaul (talk) 22:56, 27 April 2012 (UTC)

Which jurisdiction are you interested in? Shadowjams (talk) 05:29, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

April 28

The Serbs in the Yugoslav wars

Did the Serbs during the Yugoslav wars show any signs of supremacism or triumphalism? --Broadside Perceptor (talk) 00:32, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Many claimed supremacy, yes, especially over Muslim ethnic Albanians. StuRat (talk) 00:37, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

See Serbia's Political Intellectuals which says; "(Serbian) academics and other intellectuals have promoted a picture of the Serbs as a nation inherently superior to, and destined for greater things than, other nations...".

Thanks to all. --Broadside Perceptor (talk) 15:22, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Why are women beautiful?

Why are some women beautiful? Why are some men beautiful? Nobody knows, including scientists, philosophers. But I may award barnstars to sharp Wikipedians who advance this discussion and move us closer to knowing why or who provide cool comments here.

Philosophers don't seem to know. Any ideas?--Tomwsulcer (talk) 03:23, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Because God started with the best looking rib? HiLo48 (talk) 03:35, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

(edit conflict) So that men will want to impregnate them. See sexual selection. Individuals of a species develop characteristics which makes the opposite gender want to have sex with them. It also isn't random or unknown, researchers have identified certain traits that the preponderance of people will find beautiful. The Wikipedia article on Physical attractiveness is rather detailed in this regard. --Jayron32 03:37, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

I wonder if Tom's question was intended to be read that way, i.e. "beautiful" in the eyes of men, or more broadly, as if beauty is some absolute concept, and equally valid from the perspective of men and other women? I'm a man, interested in women in general (don't tell my wife that), but I've certainly met some women I don't regard as beautiful. HiLo48 (talk) 03:46, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

The most profound message I ever got in a fortune cookie was this: "It is God who makes women beautiful, and the Devil who makes them pretty." ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 04:01, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

(edit conflict) @HiLo48: No, of course it isn't an absolute, as in every woman would be automatically the paragon of beauty. However, the article physical attractiveness has a lot to say on the subject, and it also notes that physical attractiveness is distinct from sexual interest: it is possible to find someone physically attractive without wanting to have sex with them. However, the concept of physical attractiveness as a component of sexual selection is farily sound. Ultimately, human concepts of beauty are arbitrary, in the same way that other species concepts of what makes a good mate are arbitrary. What makes a mandrill get hot and bothered over the sight of a swollen blue ass? What makes a peahen swoon over the sight of a peacock's giant plumage? Why does a ewe want to mate with the ram with the biggest rack? It's all in the drive to pass on your genes. --Jayron32 04:05, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Many men look for the mate with the biggest rack, too. StuRat (talk) 04:43, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

This reminds of a theory that may exist. Women are usually attracted to a man's brawn and looks. If they were more attracted to their intelligence would we be breeding smarter as a species. I could be wrong about the majority of attractions as well as intelligence being hereditary.--Canoe1967 (talk) 04:15, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

The theory certainly exists as a subset of general Evolutionary Theory and Sexual Selection, and is addressed within the sphere of Evolutionary psychology. Intelligence is indeed partially hereditary (though it is also be influenced by environmental factors from conception onwards), and women's attraction to men usually does include an intelligence factor, since better intelligence enhances survival and therefore successful reproduction just as appropriate physical traits do, though there is always a trade-off between its benefits and the considerabler metabolic expense of maintaining the larger brain necessary.

Characteristics which signal the collection of mental abilities we group under the term "intelligence" enable women to assess a potential mate's desireability: they include inventiveness (enabling one to deal with novel threats), humour (a form of linguistic inventiveness), and artistic ability. If we view human's large brains as men's equivalents to the peacock's tail, we can explain the development of sciences and fine arts as examples of Fisherian runaway.

As a species we certainly have "bred smarter" over the 5+ million years since our ancestor's divergence from that of the chimpanzee/bonobo line, but evolution, which by definition proceeds and manifests over many successive generations, proceeds in macroscopic fauna much more slowly that is observable by an individual member of that fauna. {The poster formerly known as 87.81.230.195} 90.197.66.194 (talk) 07:57, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

This makes me think of another possibilty about the success of immigrants in their new countries. Is it possible that those that emigrate to a new country have a slight advanage over the indigenous population because of genetics and intelligence? Only those that pass health, education and financial (assuming smarter = more money and education) standards by the new country?--Canoe1967 (talk) 04:55, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

There are a lot of things I think are beautiful that I don't want to impregnate. Humans are attractive to other humans for both primary and secondary selection effects; in many cases the secondary effect of forming cohesive social relationships is more important for long term survival of offspring than mere reproductive urges. 70.58.10.111 (talk) 04:32, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

What 70.58 said... --Jayron32 04:49, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

If you think that only women are beautiful, you need to find some prettier men. Or at least ask the opinion of someone with different aesthetic (and perhaps sexual) tastes to you. AlexTiefling (talk) 10:51, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Interesting sharp observations, thank you. I agree that the relation between perception of beauty and procreation is reasonable; males find females beautiful, sex happens, DNA continues to future generations. If we did not find women beautiful, then no sex, and then that DNA disappeared. You know the notion that our human bodies are merely vehicles to propagate our all-important DNA. Human bodies are cars; in the driver's seat, is DNA. You know that one, right?--Tomwsulcer (talk) 13:27, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Who's this 'we', Kemosabe? You know the notion that 'females' make up roughly half of the human population. Women and gay men exist, in significant numbers, and play at least as significant a role in evolution as people like you. You know that one, right? 86.140.54.3 (talk) 17:20, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Unless someone reproduces, they play NO role in evolution. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 04:37, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

People who assist their kin with having kids, but that do not have kids themselves ("reproduces"), still play an evolutionary role when helping to pass on their ancestral genes, see Inclusive fitness and Kin selection. --Modocc (talk) 09:04, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

I will concede that someone who does not reproduce does impact evolution, in a "subtractive" way, by taking his own specific genetics out of the collective gene pool. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 17:54, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Funny Bugs. Perhaps one might argue that gays play a role in human genetic evolution since they can assist non-gay kin in helping their offspring survive and thrive and pass forward their genes, but my sense is this role is tangential and not "significant" as claimed, so I am leaning in the direction of Baseball Bugs overall. My sense is that it is predominantly heterosexual males who initiate sex with females, since it is relatively more difficult for a woman who wants sex with an uninterested man to cause this to happen (but this would make a great Reality TV show provided, of course, that contestants used lassos and belts.) But regardless of who is perceiving the beauty which persons are perceived as beautiful, men or women, gay or straight, how does this happen? The shape of the eyes, the smile, hair -- it happens so fast, this determination of beauty -- in a split second -- wow -- and what I am saying is that I think that nobody knows how this happens, even scientists, even philosophers, but that there is an explanation.--Tomwsulcer (talk) 18:07, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

For that split second, one must factor in various preexisting conditions, such as previous exposures to imprinting, perceptual acuity, likes and dislikes such as prejudices and various associations, and, of course, and not least, the instinctive and complex built-in pattern recognitions that influence our cognition. That split second may not last long, but there is a lot going on with it in any case, that is sometimes worth exploring, and sometimes at all levels too. :-) --Modocc (talk) 19:56, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

(ec)Most of their genetics are not unique to the individual though, which is why there are many worker ants and only one queen ant per colony. --Modocc (talk) 18:46, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

When I was perhaps ten, I was crawling on the beach at Lake Michigan making my usual fictional train setup using knee indentations to create "rails" in the sand (one of my usual childish projects) and I came upon the ankles a twelve year old girl in her bikini. She was lying on her back, asleep, knees up, and I found myself staring at her legs and abdomen with intense fascination, not knowing why I was doing this, and feeling even a bit guilty that maybe I was doing something wrong. Why was her body so exciting to me? My brain was somewhat fixated on wanting to keep exploring her bodily shape. Why?--Tomwsulcer (talk) 13:27, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Nobody told me to look at women's bodies. I did not learn this from school. I do not think I picked up such a behavior pattern from TV or newspapers or the general culture. I doubt that I had noticed role-model men looking and enjoying the female shape -- I was not copying a socially acceptable behavior pattern. My current best guess is something in my brain wiring or neurological chemistry was pre-programmed to cause me to find the female shape fascinating. Yes, it was beautiful. And yes, it was attractive. But how does this happen in the brain? --Tomwsulcer (talk) 13:27, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

I have read much of philosophy and science and I have yet to come across a good solid explanation which resonates with me. My hunch is that neuroscience may come up with a better theory in the next hundred years if the rapid pace of discovery is maintained. I have a tentative theory about why facial symmetry is related to beauty here which came about after I worked on articles such as physical attractiveness and dating but the symmetry-beauty hypothesis is only a sliver of the puzzle; the main puzzle is quite elusive.--Tomwsulcer (talk) 13:27, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

In that case, if what you are interested in is a scientific explanation for attraction, may I suggest you post on the Science ref desk? --TammyMoet (talk) 12:24, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Proof that women don't have a monopoly on beauty

Fellows, let's be reasonable, huh? This is not the time or the place to perform some kind of a half-assed autopsy on a fish... And I'm not going to stand here and see that thing cut open and see that little Kintner boy spill out all over the dock. Anthony J Pintglass (talk) 17:17, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Who says women have a monopoly on physical beauty? Please view accompanying image.--Jeanne Boleyn (talk) 18:04, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Now that there reminds me of a beautiful dark hair classmate from junior high school (back when Jaws came out). I've a nice picture of her holding my pinata, a Great White shark, that I made for my Spanish language class to beat up on. It created somewhat of a ruckus too because it was difficult to bust as it withstood a number of hard whacks, but it did spill its hard candy. :-) --Modocc (talk) 18:46, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Jorge Borges quote

It's from Labyrinths, I think, to the effect that each innovation creates its own precedents - by which he meant, we don't know they're precedents until the innovation comes about... Does anyone know where to find it?

Thanks,

Adambrowne666 (talk) 10:08, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

I think so. In his essay "Kafka and His Precursors", translated by James E. Irby in the Penguin edition of Labyrinths, he says, "The fact is that every writer creates his own precursors. His work modifies our conception of the past, as it will modify the future." --Antiquary (talk) 10:40, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Wonderful! So prompt, and spot on! Question answered, thank you - someone put the SOLVED icon up please! Adambrowne666 (talk) 10:53, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Resolved

Printing The Gideons Bible

I came across a question here which got me wondering. How do Gideons International print their bibles? Do they do it in house or do they engage a publisher? Where does the unusual leatherette cover come from? I did try Googling this, but nothing immediately jumped out at me. So I'm curious, particularly as I still have my copy that was presented to me at school. Paul MacDermott (talk) 12:21, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Try their email? tgi@gideons.org --Canoe1967 (talk) 21:30, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

This article is rather old but says they had printers in Philadelphia. --Colapeninsula (talk) 21:47, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Two of the four on Ebay (shame on them for selling bibles that say 'property of The Gideons' right in the picture) have two Chicago addresses. If anyone is in another country, they may be able to phone a local hotel and ask them to look inside one. I am curiuos if all languages are printed in the same country or print house.--Canoe1967 (talk) 22:52, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Kantor question

Resolved

Milan (son of Dr Arthur) Kantor and Anne Murdoch (married 1957) had five children, four of whom are named Michael, Julie, Tom and Eve. What is the name of their other son please? Kittybrewster ☎ 16:27, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Who are these people, Kitty, where did they live, and why are they notable enough for any of the details you seek to be recorded anywhere? -- ♬ Jack of Oz ♬ ^{[your turn]}

Annes's brother is Rupert Murdoch. Mikenorton (talk) 20:44, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Well, I guess he's notable, but is his sister notable? Neither she nor her husband appear to have Wikipedia articles. HiLo48 (talk) 21:16, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Is there a rule that questions on the Reference Desk must have something to do with Wikipedia articles? 69.62.243.48 (talk) 20:30, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

No, but there's not much point in asking such a question if no-one here is likely to have heard of them. A question about me, my parents, and my siblings would be pretty pointless. HiLo48 (talk) 03:29, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Tom died at the age of 35 sometime in the early 2000s. As the Kantors are well-known in Australian environmentalist circles, I thought there would have been an obituary for him in one of the papers that might also list his surviving siblings. Sorry, Kittybrewster, but I can't find one. Perhaps someone else can. Bielle (talk) 21:45, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

@69.62: Originally I understand that the Ref Desks were set up to help find information for articles, but they have not been that restricted in the 4 years or so I have been a regular here. Bielle (talk) 21:47, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Found a reference to the obituary, printed as follows:

KANTOR. - Tom. Our adorable Tom, died suddenly on Thursday, 25th of January. He will be with us in our hearts and memories forever. Loved by his parents Anne and Milan, wife Dominique, brothers and sisters Julie, Martin, Eve, Kate and Michael, Published in Herald Sun on January 30, 2001

It appears the missing sibling is Martin. Bielle (talk) 22:14, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Or, perhaps, Kate. There are 5 surviving siblings apparently. Bielle (talk) 03:05, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Islam in Italy population

Which cities of Italy has significant Muslim population and which nations do these Muslim come from the most? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 65.92.153.23 (talk) 16:44, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Our article Islam in Italy should help here. --TammyMoet (talk) 17:34, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Spain Muslim population

Which cities of Spain have significant Muslim population and which nations do these Muslim mostly come from? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 65.92.153.23 (talk) 16:51, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Firstly, Spain was a Muslim nation until 1492. Our article Islam in Spain should help here. --TammyMoet (talk) 17:33, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

What you mean is that at least a region of modern Spain was mostly Muslim until 1492, I'm sure. --Broadside Perceptor (talk) 15:43, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

All cities of Spain (and Italy, to answer two questions at once) have significant Muslim populations. Many small towns as well (If you think about it, even one Muslim can be "significant" if the total population of the town is small enough). Blueboar (talk) 18:20, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Both answers above are off-topic. The second is even an off-topic answer to a non-asked question.

Melilla and Ceuta have the largest Muslim population in Spain. Most come from Marocco. 88.9.107.228 (talk) 19:47, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Excuse me, but what is off-topic about referring the OP to a Wikipedia article on the subject in question? Sheesh. --TammyMoet (talk) 20:11, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

"Being a Muslim nation until 1492"? 88.9.107.228 (talk) 20:17, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Tammy then provided a link to Islam in Spain, which includes details of the current Spanish Muslim population. PLease read what we give you before criticising it as "off-topic". -- ♬ Jack of Oz ♬ ^{[your turn]} 20:27, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Pls read my links to discover that Tammy's link was off-topic. It says nothing about cities, just that Muslims live in Spain (like everywhere else). 88.9.107.228 (talk) 20:57, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

So it didn't give you all the details you wanted. That hardly qualifies it as "off-topic". At least acknowledge when people give you something in the ballpark of the information you ask for, and please do not bite the hand that feeds you. -- ♬ Jack of Oz ♬ ^{[your turn]} 21:12, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

I agree with 88.9 that Islam in Spain is somewhat off-topic. He should have given a link to Islam_in_Spain#Recent_immigration_and_conversion instead, I think. --Broadside Perceptor (talk) 15:46, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

The OP asked "...which nations do these Muslim mostly come from?" Tammy's initial answer suggested to me that many of them come from Spain. This, and the previous question, seem to be written from the perhaps false premise that most Muslims are immigrants. Given world events of the past couple of decades, and a particular trial proceeding in Norway right now, this is sensitive territory. Tammy's response was completely on-topic. Facts can be very useful.

Well, there were Muslims in Spain up to 1492, but by then it was hardly "a Muslim nation". Afterwards the ones that were still there were expelled (as were the Jews), so there aren't really any "native" Spanish Muslims, certainly not going all the way back to the fifteenth century anyway. All Muslims currently in Spain are relatively recent arrivals. So...perhaps the answer was a bit misleading, but it was unnecessary for 88.9 to be such a dick about it. Adam Bishop (talk) 21:37, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Well, the Muslims in Ceuta & Melilla are definately 'native'. --Soman (talk) 11:15, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Citation needed. Alansplodge (talk) 15:07, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

The overwhelming majority of Muslims in Spain and Italy are immigrants because they were born outside those countries. The situation is probably different in France where probably the majority of Muslims there were born in French territory, i.e. they are native Muslims. I fail to understand the relevance of those facts in relation to the trial of a bigoted mass-murderer in Norway. --Broadside Perceptor (talk) 15:55, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Charles Stuart the pretender

Is Charles II of England/Scotland typically considered a pretender in the context of the Commonwealth? To my surprise, his article only once mentions his pretender status — and that's because the English kings were pretenders to the French throne at the time. Of course I understand that it could have been omitted from the article, but it seems to be a big enough issue that I wouldn't expect it to have been omitted from a featured article. Nyttend (talk) 22:09, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

The official position is that he was the king during the English Commonwealth. As our article says, all the paperwork from the restoration was drafted with his reign pre-dated to the death of his father. During the Commonwealth itself, he was probably considered a pretender, but history was kind of re-written after he was invited back. --Tango (talk) 22:44, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

I've just checked the royal family's website, here, and it has his reign starting in 1660, so I guess it isn't the official position any more. --Tango (talk) 22:48, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

The issue in which I'm particularly interested (in the sense that I'm researching it, not that I'm asking for help here about it) is his status in Scotland, since they attempted to crown him in 1650 before Cromwell forced him to the Continent. Scottish and Scottish-influenced works that I'm reading tend to speak of him as the king during this period, not as a pretender. Nyttend (talk) 23:02, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Our article says he was proclaimed King of Scotland a few days after his father's execution in 1649 (albeit with same caveats) and was crowned in Scotland in 1651. Our article's infobox describes him as being king in Scotland throughout the period - I don't see any reason to doubt that description. --Tango (talk) 23:29, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

I'm not doubting it (thus I said, "not that I'm asking for help here about it"); I was essentially wondering if that were a common approach among contemporary scholars, or if they more commonly considered him a pretender. Nyttend (talk) 23:53, 28 April 2012 (UTC)

Given that the political urgency behind early modern Britons being claimed as a rightful king or pretender has evaporated, historians are unlikely to take positions on the righteousness or otherwise or particular monarchs or claimed monarchs. Chris Hill, for example, in Century of Revolution summarises him rapidly as Charles II when referring to him as King (Scottish recognition, return to England), and as Charles Stuart when talking about him as an exile court in France. I have been assured that the historiography of the revolution has moved on since Hill, but I am not currently up on it. I would suggest avoiding Biographies, unless published by University Presses, when sounding the scholarly treatment of Charles in exile. Fifelfoo (talk) 04:49, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

"Pretender" is probably the wrong word here. Doesn't that term assume that someone else is actually the King? Blueboar (talk) 12:03, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

According to our pretender article, he coulda been a pretender (sorry). Looie496 (talk) 18:12, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

April 29

Battle of Berlin

Was evidence of large scale rape of german women in the battle of berlin by soviet soldiers supressed in the soviet press? Was the story A woman in berlin also banned in the soviet press? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 99.146.124.35 (talk) 14:33, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

The Soviet press only reported exactly what the Communist Party wanted people to hear. Any attempt at comparison with Western news agecies is a bit pointless. See Eastern Bloc information dissemination: "The ruling authorities viewed media as a propaganda tool, and widely practiced censorship to exercise almost full control over the information dissemination. The press in Communist countries was an organ of, and completely reliant on, the state." More information in Central newspapers of the Soviet Union and Pravda. So no, I think the chances of them publishing anything that showed the Red Army in a bad light, are infinitesimally small. Alansplodge (talk) 15:00, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

In a bad light? "Why, our soldiers are the strongest in the world! The most energetic in the world! The most vigorous! The most potent! They never give in! They never take no for an answer!..." :) Wnt (talk) 18:03, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Quite. I rather suspect that the plight of German civilians would have solicited very little sympathy from ordinary Russians, after being at the receiving end of the Master Race's quest for Liebensraum. ""I ask you: Do you want total war? If necessary, do you want a war more total and radical than anything that we can even imagine today?" Joseph Goebbels in the Sportpalast speech, 1943. Be careful what you wish for. Alansplodge (talk) 22:49, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Alan, don't confuse Lebensraum (no i) with Liebestraum. -- ♬ Jack of Oz ♬ ^{[your turn]} 05:47, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

D'oh! But good old Wikipedea knew what I meant, it blue-linked to the right page despite the spelling. I'm afraid my knowledge of German is from a less than reliable source ;-) Alansplodge (talk) 12:57, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

BTW, the OP is talking about A Woman in Berlin Rojomoke (talk) 12:49, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Beevor claiming to authenticate a diary by text analysis is certainly "interesting;" I await his publication on the matter in a scholarly journal. Fifelfoo (talk) 13:31, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Mildred Harris Chaplin and Edward VIII - an affair, or a Wikipedia myth?

Tidying up an article today, I was checking a link and came across Mildred Harris, which claimed that she had had an affair with Edward VIII (then the Prince of Wales) circa 1920. They certainly met in 1920, but the cited source doesn't bear out anything more than them having danced at a reception, and googling around doesn't seem to find anything that might have been sourced from Wikipedia in the first place.

On the other hand, it's certainly not implausible; the Prince had an awful lot of affairs (real and rumoured), they're often not mentioned individually in biographies, and the tabloid gossip-press of the early twentieth century is one of the things that doesn't get digitised very well. Can anyone confirm this one way or the other? Shimgray | talk | 15:43, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

This site doesn't mention her. (I do like the title though!)--TammyMoet (talk) 18:20, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

What are the legal measures in place on an international level to deal with internet pornography, gambling, and others? Twirp2012 (talk) 18:44, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

There have been many efforts to deal with internet pornography, internet gambling, and other internet crimes, on a national level. What is being done in these areas on an international scale?Twirp2012 (talk) 18:44, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legal_status_of_Internet_pornography

Interpol is active in combatting 419 scams and other internet fraud.[2]

For gambling, the World Trade Organization's rules have been invoked on online gambling[3][4][5]. But there's not much in the way of specific international agreements, presumably because the US and other countries differ so much. --Colapeninsula (talk) 08:57, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

See Universal jurisdiction. 24.38.31.81 (talk) 14:00, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Justices of the U.S. Supreme Court appointed from academia

I am trying to determine the names justices of the U.S. Supreme (past and present) who were appointed to the court while actively serving in a college or university as a professor, dean or other academic position -full or part time. Thank. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 74.241.92.125 (talk) 18:58, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

It is unlikely (though not impossible, just unlikely) that such a list has been specifically compiled exactly as you wish, so you're best route is to do some research yourself. Category:United States Supreme Court justices lists every supreme court justice (also check the nested category for chief justices) and there should be enough of a biography for each for you to comile your own data. --Jayron32 19:14, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

For biographies of current Justices, see http://www.supremecourt.gov/about/biographies.aspx . —— Shakescene (talk) 19:56, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

(edit conflict) This isn't directly responsive to your question, but it's been rarer in recent years for U.S. Supreme Court Justices to have courtroom experience questioning witnesses and arguing before juries, which has sometimes led to some odd assumptions about what the parties can reasonably be expected to know (whether you're looking from the point of view of a prosecutor, defendant, litigant, defense lawyer, trial judge, police officer or news reporter). Sandra Day O'Connor worked for or as the district attorney in San Mateo County, California and Maricopa County, Arizona (Phoenix), while, as the Attorney-General of a small state, New Hampshire, I think that David Souter may have prosecuted some cases personally. Sonia Sotomayor has also had practical trial court experience. But most of the justices in recent years seem to have been appellate judges (on a state supreme court or a United States Court of Appeal) whose previous experience was either as an appellate lawyer or in academia. Thurgood Marshall and Elana Kagan were both Solicitor General of the United States. Charles Evans Hughes was governor of New York, and Earl Warren was governor of California. —— Shakescene (talk) 19:34, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Earl Warren was assistant city attorney of Oakland and Alameda County District Attorney, it's likely that would have involved courtroom experience. 69.62.243.48 (talk) 21:42, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Good point, I'm sure that's true (although I should refresh my memory from his memoirs). I mentioned Hughes and Warren, as I mentioned the former Solicitors General, more because they weren't appointed from academia or directly from another bench. But I didn't make a clean transition on the page or in my mind from my previous point about trial experience. —— Shakescene (talk) 10:44, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Scalia was an academic before he became an appeals court judge, though he almost certainly had practical trial experience while at Jones Day and did argue 1 case before the US Supreme Court (he won). Felix Frankfurter was appointed to the Court from Harvard Law School.--Wehwalt (talk) 10:46, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Women as the fairer sex?

Apparently, attractive men are difficult to grasp. 86.140.54.3 (talk) 22:36, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

[[:File:Quantum Leap (TV series) cast promotional photo.jpg|thumb|Our article on Quantum Leap mysteriously doesn't mention the way Scott Bakula, with softly coiffed hair, ends up briefly naked or semi-naked in just about every episode that isn't about racism. 86.140.54.3 (talk) 22:36, 29 April 2012 (UTC) ... Maybe because to do so would be original research? ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 22:52, 29 April 2012 (UTC) ... Must find scholarly discussion of female gaze in 80s scifi... we should probably leave this caption box now. 86.140.54.3 (talk) 23:00, 29 April 2012 (UTC)]]

Hi, women have been called the "fairer" sex. I don't know the exact meaning of the term , fair, or which it originated. But as a heterosexual straight boy, I realize that I find girls way more visually attractive then boys. I wanted to know if it is just accepted that girls look better than boys and if so, do girls find boys as visually attractive as boys find girls (or more scientific terms-male to female etc.).

Thanks. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 98.231.19.48 (talk) 19:11, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

"Fair" is a word that, over history, has had lots of related (and not-so-related) meanings, and it is quite likely that the original author of the phrase may have intended several of them at once. For some examples, "fair" can mean "pale" or "light colored" (as in "fair skinned"), it can mean just or equitable (as in "that's a fair cop"), if can mean dainty or slight of build, it can mean "within the rules" (as in a "fair ball" in baseball), there are lots of possibilities, and it may be quite likely that the term encompasses multiple of these definitions. --Jayron32 19:19, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

I think the more oft-used term is "the fair sex". "Fair" originally meant beautiful or pleasant,[6] and all it's other meanings derive from that in some way. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 19:26, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Don't want to inhibit your enthusiasm, but many people considered expressions such "fair(er) sex" / "the fair (one)" etc. to refer to women to be a rather hackneyed cliché long before the rise of modern feminism... AnonMoos (talk) 21:03, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

(ec) Evolution has seen to it that, on average, males find females more attractive than males, and vice versa: see sexual selection. At the same time, many people can appreciate the appearance of members of their own sex even without being attracted to them (and of course there are some people who are attracted to members of their own sex). I think that the criteria for male and female beauty are somewhat different (though both are to some degree cultural), and most people would not try to find an objective comparison between the attractiveness of men and women. --ColinFine (talk) 21:05, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

You know, 98, I think you'd actually find this article helpful in broadening your perspective [7]. Embarrassingly, both my pictured examples are mentioned. Or this one [8] on the role of Star Trek in the development of fandom and vidding (the Original Series was pretty equal opportunities in terms of eye candy). I actually thought it was pretty funny that our article on Quantum Leap didn't mention the nudity, given the amount of unsourced observations that are in the article. It's not Original Research just to note the contents of a TV show... ;) 86.140.54.3 (talk) 23:23, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

It's possible "fair", which is also synonomous with blonde, dates from ancient Rome where blonde hair was considered a symbol of beauty; many of the women (who were mainly brunettes) either dyed their hair or wore blonde wigs made from the hair of German women.--Jeanne Boleyn (talk) 06:19, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

In traditional English usage, "fair" was by no means synonymous with blonde. It could sometimes mean "good looking" generally. If "fair" was contrasted with "dark" (as in "tall dark and handsome"), a number of things would be relevant (hair, eye-color, slight variations in Caucasian skin tones, etc.), and the word still would not really be synonymous with blonde (though often implying blonde). AnonMoos (talk) 07:54, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Just go along to any newspaper shop and compare the number of pictures of women to men even in the women's magazines. No real competition there as to which type image sells better. Dmcq (talk) 13:12, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

That is something always made me curious. Even after the beginning of the era of gender equality, why do the magazines are edited keeping male readership in mind? Why don't the mags emphasizes male beauty keeping women readership in mind? Why do male models have less demand than women models (proved from the fact male models are paid less)? Don't women like to watch pictures of male physique? --SupernovaExplosion ^Talk 15:03, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

They obviously do, in certain contexts, as you can see if you examine some of the covers of romance novels (see Fabio etc.); however, there still seem to be some differences in how physique-admiration manifests itself among women vs. among men, as seen from the fact that Playgirl magazine once discontinued full frontal male nudity, since this seemed to be attracting a gay male readership more than the intended female readership (from perusing the article Playgirl, it seems that the magazine is now resigned to having a significant gay male readership....). AnonMoos (talk) 01:40, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

LOL. Do the women's mags attract lesbian readership? Just curious :) --SupernovaExplosion ^Talk 02:34, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

It seems hard to picture that one sex can be more attractive than the other in general; after all, roughly equal numbers of people prefer either. More interesting is the question of whether parts of one sex are prettier. For example, that men have nicer arms, but women have better butts. :) I wonder if anyone has made up a table of all the specifics - I would guess some people should be able to agree on these things, but I don't actually know. Wnt (talk) 22:05, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Also not to forget, the archetypal traits come from a patriarchal dominated society virtually, if not entirely, across the globe.Lihaas (talk) 19:12, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Mayor of London

Brian Paddick's manifesto for Mayor of London includes a pledge to introduce "tough payback sentences" (ie. getting people convicted of criminal offences to work in the community). Does the London Mayor have authority over criminal sentencing? Isn't London subject to the same sentencing guidelines as the rest of England and Wales? Unfortunately, our article on the mayoralty doesn't go into much detail about what powers they have. --Tango (talk) 19:11, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

I don't know, but in the US, we have a separation of powers, such that its not uncommon for sentencing guidelines to be passed by legislatures, like California's three-strike rule, perhaps at the request or promise of some elected governor with the influence of their political "mandate" to do so and it takes someone with enough political headwind tailwind to do this. Of course, even then, the judiciary and the state and federal constitutions usually have considerable say as to what's acceptable. I suppose that this guy seeking the mayor-ship, who does not appear to be a career politician, seeks a similar influence. --Modocc (talk) 19:35, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

The problem is, London doesn't have its own legislature (the London Assembly just scrutinises the work of the mayor, it can't actually pass laws). Only a fairly short list of powers are devolved from the national government and legislature to the mayor, and I didn't think sentencing was one of them. --Tango (talk) 19:40, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

(edit conflict) Not having the actual power and authority to do something doesn't mean that a politician will not make grandiose claims in order to get elected. I think every politician since the very first election in history has made claims about what they will do in office, and these claims rarely have any connection to reality when checked against the delineated powers availible to that office. They all do this. It doesn't matter if the Mayor of London can actually bring about the changes that he promises, he merely has to make the promise so that he'll get the votes. What he does once in office, and doesn't have to pander any more, are entirely unrelated to what he does while campaigning. It's actually better that he makes claims he can't accomplish, since he can then put the blame on others ("I tried to get these new laws passed, but the people who actually should have made these laws opposed me! Elect me again, but throw them out!") --Jayron32 19:42, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

I understand it from the point of view of the candidates. From the point of view of me, a voter, though, I'd like to know if he can actually do what he is pledging to do. I know no candidate is going to do everything they say they will, but there are things in his manifesto that he definitely can't do then that would count strongly against him in my book. --Tango (talk) 19:48, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Then you are more rationale than the preponderance of voters, who mostly make electoral decisions based on tribal affiliations (such as membership to a political party or the candidates stance on emotionally charged but otherwise inconsequential issues) rather than who will actually do the job the best. --Jayron32 17:51, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Not really. Offender Payback is a species of probation, which in London is overseen by the London Probation Trust. That's part of the National Offender Management Service, which is part of the Ministry of Justice, which means they work for Ken Clarke. LPT works with, but not for, the London Crime Reduction Board, which the mayor chairs (ref). In January the mayor became the Police and Crime Commissioner for London (ahead of other parts of England, who don't get PCCs until November). The powers and responsibilities of the PCC are listed here - still not directly probation either. So no, the Mayor doesn't have powers over how the probation is done. But that doesn't mean the Mayor doesn't have lots of influence (and a brief look at other mayoral candidates shows them also saying stuff about payback, so it's not an overstatement confined to Paddick). In practice those doing community payback often end up working for the mayor (often by means of the social work department) - picking up litter, cleaning old folks centres, etc., tasks some have criticised as Misfits-like makework. And many offenders (including I think all young offenders) are managed by an inter-departmental team that includes the social work department and the probation service, and the relevant borough's Community Safety Partnership also influences how things are done (and those usually have several people who work, eventually, for the mayor) - for example, the Richmond CSP website is here (I imagine they're seeing a worrying uptick in top hat related crimes...). So the mayor is in some position to influence what offenders do, and obviously enjoys an effective bully pulpit. -- Finlay McWalterჷTalk 20:20, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

Perhaps the mayor can influence the London's district members of the House of Commons to introduce significant top-down changes? Maybe there are some precedences for that sort of influence? --Modocc (talk) 21:09, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

(ec) I heard a discussion on BBC Radio 4 a few weeks ago about the referendums over elected mayors for other cities, where one speaker was arguing for a No vote because the powers of the proposed mayors have not been laid out. From what he said, there is an expectation that once in office, Mayors would ask for additional powers to be devolved to them. Having said that, I wouldn't think that sentencing policy would be among these. --ColinFine (talk) 21:12, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

For completeness, worth noting that Mayor of London, which OP is asking about, is an existing post, with existing powers, whereas Mayor of, say, Bristol, is subject to the 'new post, who knows what they'll be allowed to do' problem --Saalstin (talk) 21:35, 29 April 2012 (UTC)

This practice seems widespread: "The UK Independence Party candidate for Mayor of London has defended making policy pledges which he would not have the power to deliver". --Colapeninsula (talk) 09:01, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

I get the impression that many of the promises being made (even those that fit within the mayor's responsibilities) cannot be kept without support from the London Assembly (which can apparently amend the Mayor's budget with a 2/3 majority), the London boroughs, and the national government. In any case, if caught pledging to do X outside their remit, the candidates can simply say "I will lobby the Borough Councils to do X" or "the Mayor should obviously be responsible for X, and I will persuade the government to allow this". An example of this: this article mentions that Boris Johnson has been talking about increasing the level of central government spending on London relative to the rest of the country (something obviously a long way outside the Mayor's powers). Actually, looking for relevant articles has convinced me that London's system of local government is really, really stupid - the various bodies themselves seem to be unable to clearly explain what they are responsible for, so it is unsurprising that Wikipedia's attempts are less than explicit. At least none of it is as crazy as the City of London Corporation (in which you can stand for election if the incumbents let you, and you can vote if you are appointed by one of the City's businesses). 130.88.73.65 (talk) 14:49, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

April 30

Textbook coverage of the Cold War

Did 1950's-1970's US Social Studies textbooks provide greater coverage to the Cold War, than moderen US social studies textbooks? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 99.146.124.35 (talk) 00:33, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

On the contrary. When I was in school in the 1970s, history textbooks went no closer to the present than superficial coverage of the Kennedy administration, not even covering the Cuban missile crisis. There was just a final chapter titled something like "The Postwar Years". Modern textbooks typically have a chapter devoted to the Cold War, from beginning to end. Marco polo (talk) 00:55, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

I had U.S. history, I believe, three times in junior high and high school and in no instance did we get further than WWII. The book went farther but the teachers never got hrough all the material in the book. So even if a chapter is included in the book, the more important question is "Are Cold War questions included in the standardized tests?". See also Teach to the test. Rmhermen (talk) 14:59, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

A little off-topic, but at school in the UK in the 1970s, the Cold War was covered as an ethical issue in our Religious Education lessons. Given the left-leaning political bias of the educational establishment at the time, there was a heavy emphasis on the benefits of unilateral disarmament. In the 1980s this went a step further, with "peace studies" on the timetable at many schools. Apologies for the digression. Alansplodge (talk) 17:18, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Neighbors ATV racing Noise Unbearable

We live in a rural residential zoned area in Davidsville Pennsylvania. Our neighbors have recently been denied a zoning change they requested which prevented them from surface mining their 400+ acre property (around all of our houses) and now they have decided to "allow" dirt bikes and 4-wheelers to create racing tracks and jumps all over their 400 acre farm. These ATV's and dirt bikes are now constantly racing through their property everyday. The noise is unbearable. There are usually anywhere between 5 and 20 ATV's at one time and they run all day Saturday and Sunday and off and on through out the week. Our peaceful residential neighborhood now sounds like a motocross stadium almost all day every day. I called the police and they said there was no noise ordinance and there was nothing that they could do if the property owner allows them on the property? There has to be something that can be done to stop the constant noise which is making life in our home unbearable and basically uninhabitable. Are there any actions that can be done to prevent this from continuing? Thank you so much for any advice on how I can get our neighborhood back to normal! — Preceding unsigned comment added by 24.145.27.60 (talk) 00:58, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Davidsville, Pennsylvania, is in Somerset County, Pennsylvania, whose website is http://www.co.somerset.pa.us/, which has a page (http://www.co.somerset.pa.us/county.asp?deptnum=99) about the Somerset County Law Library, which is open to the public.

—Wavelength (talk) 01:27, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Call a lawyer. We can't help you. Sorry. Shadowjams (talk) 01:41, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Well, while we can't offer legal advice, we can offer a bit of political advice... have you considered getting together with your neighbors, and finding out if they are as upset about this as you are? If so, try to form a local advocacy campaign for new zoning laws and noise ordinances. Make enough noise and it will become an issue in local political campaigns next fall. Blueboar (talk) 02:08, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

You can try this resource, but Wikipedia does not endorse it.

• Legal Advice on Noise Complaints | Find, Research, and Rate Attorneys at Avvo.com

—Wavelength (talk) 02:22, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

I agree that passing an anti-noise ordinance is the way to go. If you are unable to do so, I suggest soundproofing one "quiet room", where you can go to relax when your nerves get frazzled. StuRat (talk) 04:41, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

The real problem is that the U.S. has somehow encouraged the notion that noise should be handled at a local level, but of course, at a local level many municipalities are caught up in a whore war to attract businesses by being laxest. Other environmental laws regarding air and water pollution would be no more effective if passed as township ordinances. Legal action, media appeals, and opening an ATV park when your mining application is denied are just a few of the many means of terrorism from which government is generated. Wnt (talk) 15:18, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

I disagree on the need for national noise control laws, as most noise sources are inherently local, and remain a local problem, unlike air and water pollution, which spreads to downriver and downwind areas. And different noise levels are acceptable in a strip mine than in a residential community. An exception would be for mobile noise sources, like airplanes, trains, and motorcycles, where having a different acceptable noise level for each community you pass thru makes little sense. StuRat (talk) 20:29, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

I wonder what part of the U.S. Constitution would authorize the Congress to pass a national noise control law. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 02:22, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Well, the bastards wasted no time at all deciding that hybrids were too quiet. After a lifetime of their claims they can't touch noise, once they decided something makes too little noise and they have to ruin the environment more, it wasn't even a contest. Wnt (talk) 03:03, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Well, that's different. Too quiet, eh? Presumably that's under the "interstate commerce" umbrella. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 04:08, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Are the ATV riders all from in-state? Are the ATVs themselves from in-state? While the interstate commerce clause has indeed been interpreted far too broadly in many other cases, noise does cross state boundaries, and most of the things that make it cross state boundaries also. Wnt (talk) 11:24, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

The percentage of noise that crosses state borders is extremely small, unlike, say, the percentage of water from rainfall. ATVs don't tend to be driven on multi-state trips, but used within one or two states, so, unlike truck drivers, who would need to comply with laws in every state on their route, an ATV owner would only have to worry about one or two. And noise from a given ATV park, unless it happens to be right on the border, won't affect anybody outside the state. StuRat (talk) 17:53, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

The federal government could regulate the meximum noise level of the vehicles, as part of their interstate commerce authority. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 11:29, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

It wouldn't be a bad start - especially when lots of the ads on television have the general plot "See what an asshole I am - when I rev my massive engine I can wake up my neighbors!" Wnt (talk) 13:11, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

People are allowed to cross state borders freely. Unless the guys in the noisy vehicles are crossing state lines to sell something that's regulated under interstate commerce laws, the federal government likely has no jurisdiction. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 21:55, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

As a first step, I think you should consider registering an account on Wikimedia Commons where you can be contacted and discuss these matters. Use it to upload video (only from your home, or a public place, such as the street, per Commons policy - don't trespass on tape...) so people can see/hear this nightmare for themselves. Illustrations like this will be useful to you in the broader political fight, or for organizing people in your town who live further away. Wnt (talk) 16:38, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Pocket veto

"A "pocket veto" is where the President of the United States fails to sign a passed bill within ten days, and Congress has adjourned. It is an absolute veto, and cannot be overruled by Congress." This is what i found on the internet and many other sources said something about "the Congress has adjourned". I didn't really understand what is the word "adjourn" mean in this case? Can someone explain to me what exactly is the pocket veto in a different way and the word adjourn? Please explain in simply words enough that any average American could understand. Thanks! — Preceding unsigned comment added by 174.20.13.37 (talk) 04:02, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

To adjourn a meeting of any kind is to declare it officially over and done. The U.S. Congress does not meet 365 days a year, but instead meets in various "sessions" of some number of weeks or months. So when they declare a given session over, and go home, the President can "pocket" any bills he has received (i.e. put them "in his pocket"), rather than signing them, and they will fail to become law. It's not something that happens frequently. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 04:25, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

And I should point out that Congress is free to pass the same bill again when they next convene, or even call an emergency session, if necessary (the President can then veto that, and Congress can then override that). So, the veto is only on that occurrence of the bill, which doesn't mean all that much. Thus, the implication that a bill so vetoed will never become law is not correct. StuRat (talk) 04:35, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

See also Pocket veto and List of United States presidential vetoes. It seems that 2/5 of all vetoes are pocket ones. Rmhermen (talk) 07:14, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

I would think the main advantage of a pocket veto would be the lack of media coverage. That is, if a popular bill isn't signed, there's no need for a press conference to explain why it wasn't signed. And Congressmen who might have complained to the media about the veto may be on their way home, and away from the Washington press corps, when it becomes apparent that the bill isn't going to be signed. StuRat (talk) 17:45, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Stories that "predicted" the destruction of the WTC

Some stories published before 9/11 included a terrorist attack on WTC as a plot element. Two examples I know of are deus ex and The Lone Gunmen. Are there any more such stories? Short stories, novels, TV series, movies, games, any media is fine. I'm not spinning conspiracy theories here, just interested in finding these coincidences. Billions of stories are published every year, so it's not strange that a coincidence like this would occur. Given that WTC were attacked back in 1993, and were also the tallest buildings in NYC, it's not hard to imagine another attack on WTC even before 9/11. 173.32.168.59 (talk) 07:32, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

There was a famous album cover which had to be hastily changed in the days after the attack (see Party Music). Anything published after 1993 would not be too prophetic or greatly coincidental, in my opinion... AnonMoos (talk) 07:40, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

This page lists several things, including another game, that foreshadow the attacks. Stephen King's 1982 novel The Running Man (which is very different from the film they made of it) ends when the protagonist flies a hijacked airliner into a skyscraper (but not the WTC). -- Finlay McWalterჷTalk 07:49, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Thanks for the input, but I want to focus on the WTC specifically. The more general case of "flying plane into skyscraper" is just another trope.173.32.168.59 (talk) 08:20, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Would the stories have to predate the 1993 World Trade Center bombing? --Colapeninsula (talk) 09:03, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

No necessarily. But pre-1993 cases would be more interesting.173.32.168.59 (talk) 20:08, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

There are some examples here85.52.87.200 (talk) 18:05, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

how tall is the Lexington Building (London's exclusive new Flakturm)

It seems the UK's Ministry of Defence is considering using the roof of London's Lexington Building (the former water tower of a match factory) in the Bow Quarter development as a location for missile defences. I can't find, however, how tall that building is - all the Google searches I've tried merely try to sell me titchy flats in it. Can anyone find out? -- Finlay McWalterჷTalk 14:11, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Just by eyeballing the picture, I would say 9 - 12 normal 10' stories + the 15 - 20' section on top. My bad guess would be 105 to 145' then. One could email/phone and ask the owners, a local museum, government, or even the airport may know.--Canoe1967 (talk) 14:55, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

"2 tall towers of 10 stages" according to British Listed Buildings: Bryant and May Factory. The search continues. Alansplodge (talk) 16:09, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Nope - I've drawn a blank, except that a lot of the estate agent's blurb talks of "double height ceilings", Alansplodge (talk) 17:12, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Thanks for looking - the listing alone is informative (and indeed on closer Google Maps/Streetview inspection, the second tower is visible). Some of the flat listings do show a kind of bedroom mezzanine (so they can pretend they're charging a quarter of a million quid for a one bedroom flat rather than a studio); that shows they've had to wedge odd floor heights in (presumably because of the existing structure of the building) which makes a simple count-and-multiply strategy for estimating particularly unreliable for this weird building. I'm sure it'll get more media coverage if they actually do deploy starstreak on its roof. -- Finlay McWalterჷTalk 20:38, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

But how tall is it, not counting the mezzanine? Nyttend (talk) 23:06, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Is the bank of Norway losing money on the destruction of the 50 øre coin?

Norway is currently getting rid of the 50 øre coin. In this opinion piece, [9](in Norwegian), it is mentioned that the coins will be destroyed and sold for scrap by the bank of Norway. The metal content of each coin is estimated at 13 øre. Does this mean that the bank of Norway loses 37 øre (+cost of processing the coin) for each coin? 176.11.18.168 (talk) 15:04, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Norges Bank is the central bank of Norway. I assume it's authorized to issue new currency corresponding to the destroyed. The new may be larger coins, notes or electronic. PrimeHunter (talk) 15:28, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

The coin is being withdrawn because people didn't use them [10], but they still had to keep minting them, so no replacement. Mikenorton (talk) 15:38, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Black population in Europe

I read that France has the largest population of Black people and UK has second largest, so which European nation has third largest and who is after that? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 65.92.153.222 (talk) 16:01, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

The information in Black people in Europe is probably as good as you are going to get. 130.88.99.231 (talk) 17:15, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

The "regions with significant populations" section of the infobox suggests you're correct about France and the UK. The next four would be Italy, the Netherlands, Germany, and Portugal. Note that the numbers for Italy and Germany are expressed as ranges, so maybe the Netherlands or Germany could be third in this count. It's probably Italy, though. --BDD (talk) 19:52, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

The figures are pretty meaningless - each country has its own definition, and so there is a lack of consistency. There are many ways of defining whether someone is or is not "black". The article on Black people in Europe has inconsistencies of its own, and provides little clarification. Ghmyrtle (talk) 20:03, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

to train my dog to walk next to me, can I grab its tail

my dog, basically a puppy, (4 months), insists on all but CHOKING itself trying to run ahead whenever we walk, while panting and making gargling noises from all but choking itself on its collar (which isnt too tight or anything). I don't run ahead, but walk normally and ask the dog to stay. (I have a leash that's long enough for the dog to sniff about within a good radius of me, though it's a traditional shorter leash). Can I just grab the dog's tail whenever it starts leaping ahead (not hard, just so that if it leaps ahead, it finds it's just leaping against its own tail), so that it learns to walk at my pace? If not, how should I train the dog to walk at a nice pace bessides me? Feeding it treats when it happens to be doing it by itself does not work, nor does it ever listen when I try to chide it for trying to leap ahead / compliment it when it slows down: this works for about half a second, and (if its excited) it just keeps trying to leap ahead and choke itself. I don't think this is healthy for it!--188.157.143.195 (talk) 17:35, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

I think that pulling the dog's tail could injure it or provoke it to bite. What I use with my dog is a harness that goes behind her front legs and in front of her chest. The harness connects to a leash in front, at the chest. This solves the choking problem that you get with a collar. (She wears a collar, but I don't use it for her leash on walks.) It is crucial to use a harness that hooks at the front, rather than at the dog's back. If the harness hooks at the front, you can control the dog's direction and movement much better; you pull the dog. If the harness hooks at the back, the dog pulls you. With a front-hooking harness, you can control the dog's action. The thing to do is, whenever the dog gets ahead of you, force it to stop. Don't let it start going until you say so. If it gets ahead of you, stop the dog again. Wait a few seconds, then try again. If the dog stays at your side, keep going. The dog will gradually learn that if it wants a satisfying walk without lots of forced halts, it will need to stay at your side. Marco polo (talk) 17:59, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

The command "Heel!" is well covered in any book on training your dog and in on-line videos. Your dog is waiting for clear direction from you, the Alpha-Dog.--Wetman (talk) 18:05, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

I totally agree that you need to show the dog that you are alpha, and verbal commands such as "heel" can be useful. I thought I would add , though, most dogs have a natural walking pace that is faster than many humans are used to walking. However, most humans are capable of walking at a pace that is comfortable to dogs if humans walk briskly. I have chosen to walk briskly with my dog, partly to make the walk more satisfying and better exercise for her, but also because a brisk walk is better exercise for me! If you are capable of walking fast and want to give it a try, you and your dog might have a quicker and easier time finding a rhythm that you both like. That said, if you can't or don't want to walk fast, you can of course insist that the dog slow down for you. Marco polo (talk) 18:08, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Sounds like your dog has you well trained. :-) StuRat (talk) 20:15, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

In addition to what's already been said, I'd also recommend having a treat pouch or pocket full of treats and dole them out as you walk with the dog at your side. The dog, if a food motivated dog, will want to stay by your side for the treats. If it's a tall enough dog, this is fairly easy to accomplish while walking. Also, it would help if you worked on other commands and exercises. Does your dog know how to sit, stay, lay down, or come when called? This will reinforce the idea that they want to be near you (possibly for treats). If you're concerned about your dog filling up on treats, one option is Lickety Stiks. (I don't work for the company and one of my dogs doesn't care for these) Another option is Charlee Bears which is a low cal treat. (Again, don't work for the company but my dogs love these) Dismas|^(talk) 20:08, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

You might also reduce their regular meals, both so they won't get fat and so they will do more to get treats. StuRat (talk) 20:15, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

I agree that pulling the dog's tail is a bad idea. If nothing else works, you might escalate with a shock collar, and give it a zap whenever it leaves your side. Some people think of these as cruel, but the alternative might be a dog that will run into the street (possibly dragging you with it) and get hit by a car. StuRat (talk) 20:15, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

It is a completely ignorant statement to propose that the two options are shocking the dog or them running into the street. There are completely pain-free training methods that are extremely well known and much, much more effective than causing your dog pain on a routine basis. Training requires work, and sometimes expert consultation, but pain should play an almost minimal role in it if you want a psychologically healthy dog. --Mr.98 (talk) 20:47, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

It's going to depend on the dog. Just as some people won't behave without the threat of punishment, the same is true of some dogs. StuRat (talk) 08:04, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Note that these are illegal in some places (Wales, for example), and according to our article, "use of shock collars is controversial and scientific evidence for their safety and efficacy is mixed." 130.88.99.231 (talk) 10:20, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Pulling the dog's tail is a bad idea. Whenever the dog gets ahead of you and starts pulling you, you stop, not stop the dog. If it does not work well. Whenever the dog gets ahead of you and starts pulling you, you turn around and walk in a different direction. If the dog gets ahead of you and wants to turn right, you turn left. The dog should learn you are the leader and you are the one who decides where to go. Oda Mari (talk) 08:11, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

I picture a smart dog figuring this out, and always heading the opposite direction of where he wants you to take him. :-) (I did something similar in school, where one teacher would call on whoever wasn't paying attention. So, when I had something to contribute, I'd stare vacantly out the window. If I had no idea what the answer was, I'd raise my hand impatiently.) StuRat (talk) 08:17, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

ALA accredited schools

While checking for the ALA (American Library Association) accredited schools near me, I stumbled across this map http://maps.google.com/maps/ms?ie=UTF8&hl=en&msa=0&msid=105865627555958965474.000449740ea1f057a8b91&ll=41.508577,-93.515625&spn=89.94393,163.125&z=3

I'm completely mystified as to how to explain Hawaii having seven such schools when other much more populous states having one, two or even none at all! Is there a explanation or is this just some bizarre oddity?66.30.10.71 (talk) 19:07, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

I believe this is some sort of error. I searched for ALA-accredited schools in Hawaii on the ALA site, and the only result was the University of Hawaii. However, all seven locations marked on that map seem to be campuses in the University of Hawaii system. The map is a nice visualization, but if you're considering library school, I'd recommend this official PDF instead. Good luck out there! It's not an easy job market for librarians. --BDD (talk) 19:49, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Yes, specifically, the error seems to be that each campus of the University of Hawaii is listed as if it were a separate university. StuRat (talk) 20:21, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Ah! Thanks so much--I see that you're right! Consider this question RESOLVED!! ...also, ugh, I know. Fortunately I plan to be poor for a long time, so it'll all work out. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 66.30.10.71 (talk) 20:11, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Resolved

Inflation or already deflation?

Why isn't the inflation negative? I know that different goods, at different proportions, go into the price index's basket, but wouldn't it be obvious to include real estate, which price is falling, as a big share of the basket? That would result in a negative inflation, at least for me, little poor tenant (or lucky tenant). XPPaul (talk) —Preceding undated comment added 21:10, 30 April 2012 (UTC).

Do you mean deflation? I'm guessing that the price index measures things that are often bought by average people; even most rich people don't buy real estate very often. Nyttend (talk) 21:57, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Yes, but lots of people pay rent every month. XPPaul (talk) 21:59, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Rent and real estate are vastly different things. Per the article you linked, price indices measure the costs of goods and services, and rent is neither one. Nyttend (talk) 22:03, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

How does it come that renting is not a service? XPPaul (talk) 22:06, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

A service is something that someone does for you. When you rent your apartment, you're paying for the right to use the property yourself. Things such as building maintenance are paid with the rent, but that doesn't make the rent a service. It's like when you buy goods at Wal-Mart such as food or tissues; you're paying for the service of them transporting the goods from distant places to your local store, but your purchase is primarily that of the goods. Nyttend (talk) 22:10, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

So, rent-a-car companies are not service companies? XPPaul (talk) 22:20, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

They're providing the car for you to use. The problem here is the division between real property and personal property; due to the nature of owning/renting/whatevering land, it's completely different from owning/renting/whatevering essentially everything else. Nyttend (talk) 22:24, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

What inflation is really supposed to measure is changes in the value of money. It isn't obvious to me that including real estate in the gauge is the best way to do that. Looie496 (talk) 22:12, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Why wouldn't it include all things that you need? XPPaul (talk) 22:20, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

To answer something you asked earlier — real estate definitely isn't a service, and it's not a good either. An index that measures strictly those things isn't going to measure real estate simply by definition. Nyttend (talk) 23:04, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

I don't see anything to be gained by defining goods and services in such a way that real estate and rental property don't count and then excluding them from your inflation basket based solely on that weird and arbitrary definition. Some inflation indices don't include real estate and rent (partly because you end up with weird feedback effects when you use change interest rates in order to affect inflation which is itself caused by interest rates on mortgages), but plenty do include them. --Tango (talk) 23:44, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Some price indicies include housing, some don't. Your statistical reporter's quality of reporting housing costs to "average" workers may vary. Retail price indicies are not useful for interrogating production prices or aggregate values. Fifelfoo (talk) 22:41, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

In the US, the CPI basket includes rent[11][12].173.32.168.59 (talk) 00:04, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

The UK has 2 measures, the RPI (Retail Prices Index) which includes mortgages, housing depreciation (which is in accountancy terms a cost) and rent, and the CPI (Consumer Prices Index) which includes rent but not the costs of homeownership. So house prices aren't included directly, but the costs of home ownership are included in the RPI. The CPI is supposed to be standardised and comparable internationally, which determines its contents.[13] Although some prices have been falling recently, others, principally fuel but also many basic foods, have increased. Interest rates in most countries have been flat for 2-3 years, and therefore won't affect the index one way or another, while rents in some areas (at least in the UK) have been increasing due to the fact that people can't buy houses and there's been increased demand for rented property[14]; this may have happened elsewhere too. Different indexes are also used for different purposes: calculating benefit rates for the out-of-work, chronically ill, pensioners, etc, is an important one, and it doesn't make sense to include the costs of buying houses for people who are far more likely to rent. --Colapeninsula (talk) 08:37, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Secondary liability

Is secondary liability purely a US thing, or is the term used in other countries? Our article talks solely about US law, and I'm not sure whether it needs to have added a {{globalise}} tag or a statement that it's just an American thing. Nyttend (talk) 23:00, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

How to...

Let say I wrote something in Microsoft Word. Is there a way that i can do which would permanently prevent anyone from changing anything in that specific file? So that file of Microsoft Word will stay like that forever! Nobody could change anything in it (by change i mean change the word or add new word or delete the words in it...). They could possibly delete it, the file, if they want but can't change the content.174.20.13.37 (talk) 23:10, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

FYI, this question is better asked at the reference desk for computing. As far as I know, all Word files are editable by anyone who has access both to the document and to the version of Word in which you wrote it. I suppose you could use Microsoft Word 1.0 (which looked somewhat similar to this), because virtually nobody will have software capable of editing it, but someone with Word 1.0 would still be able to use it, and someone without software to edit it wouldn't be able to read it. You're better off creating a Word document, converting it to PDF, and putting a security lock on it (which is something I don't know how to do) to prevent editing without a password. Nyttend (talk) 23:24, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

Agreed, although they could still do screen grabs and maybe optical character recognition to reconstruct an editable document, or, if all else fails, they could retype it. StuRat (talk) 07:59, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Yes. Save it so it can only be opened as read-only unless they enter a password. Click on the Options button on the Save As dialog (exactly where it is will depend on the version of Word you are using, but it will be there somewhere). There are ways around it (you can just copy and paste the content into a new word document and then save over the old one, for instance), but it works well against accidental editing. --Tango (talk) 23:36, 30 April 2012 (UTC)

I'm not really sure what you are hoping to achieve - if your file is stored on a writable medium, it is always going to be possible to modify the file. Even if you turn on some security feature that prevents Word from modifying the file, somebody can still copy the text, images, fonts, etc., to create an imitation of the file, which they can modify however they want and try and pass off as the original: this is an example of an analog hole. So the only thing you can do is make sure you are able to check whether the file is the same as the original. One way of doing this is to save a copy of the file somewhere secure, and use a utility like diff to check the copy is identical to the possibly-modified file. Alternatively, especially if the file is very large, you can save a hash of the file (if you are really paranoid, you will want to use a cryptographic hash function) which you can compare against a hash of the other copy. 130.88.99.231 (talk) 10:09, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

To give a stupid example you could PrintScreen each page and save as an image, or use a virtual printer to create a printout. The main problem is, though, that people have been avidly converting plain old paper books into files to the point where they're pretty good at it. Even if you had some kind of "Eyes Only" viewer, I could still photograph the screen, save the photos into a djvu file, and use the built in OCR to get back the text, and work with that. Wnt (talk) 19:04, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

One option that works for me is to save as a PDF. HTH, Robinh (talk) 02:35, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

May 1

Gambier Islands

How come the Gambier Islands, mainly Mangareva have the same native population recovery as it's neighbors in the Tahiti and Easter Island which had native populations of around 6000 in 1880 and of 111 in 1877 respectively. The island population remains the same since it's decline in the 1800s.--KAVEBEAR (talk) 01:23, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Tahiti and Easter Island both have viable economies, the latter's based mainly on tourism and the former's on a combination of tourism and its role as the commercial and governmental center of French Polynesia. As such, they have been able to support growing indigenous populations and have attracted immigrants. By contrast, the Gambier Islands have remained economically marginal. As a result, any natural increase has likely been negated by outmigration. Marco polo (talk) 15:55, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Kings of Easter Island

From the death of Kai Mako'i 'Iti and Maurata to the accession of Atamu Tekena there was a period of twenty years. Tepito is mentioned as a king between these individual but who is he and how does Jean-Baptiste Dutrou-Bornier's wife "Queen Mother" Koreto and their daughters "Queen" Caroline and Harriette or Alexander Ariipaea Salmon fit into this.--KAVEBEAR (talk) 01:36, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

A U.S. government report published in 1891, http://www.sacred-texts.com/pac/ei/ei00.htm that seems to describe the visit of a ship called the Mohican to the island (not sure which year but probably before 1883), says:

* "Maurata, the last of a long line of kings, together with all of the principal chiefs of the islands [and "the majority of the able-bodied men"] was kidnapped by the Peruvians [in 1862] and died in slavery. Since that time there has been no recognized authority. ... [Maurata's] nearest descendant is a sturdy old fellow (Fig. 2) called Kaitae, about eighty years of age."

* "In 1863-164 the natives were converted to Christianity by Frère Eugène, a Jesuit missionary. A Frenchman called Dutrou-Bornier had settled upon the island and ... lived with a common woman, who had been the wife of a chief, and he succeeded in having her proclaimed queen of the island, under the name of Korato. A system of espionage and intrigue was instituted by Queen Korato, guided by the Frenchman's instructions, which resulted in an open rebellion against the ecclesiastical authority. The missionary was finally compelled to leave the island... The Frenchman was killed in August, 1876, by being thrown from his horse while drunk, and Queen Korato and her two children survived him only a few years."

* "Mr. Salmon [a Tahitian] found upon his arrival [in 1878] that none of the natives had assumed authority over his fellows, and in due course that gentleman became to all intents and purposes the king of the island.. ... The total number of natives is at present 155... The population has been for several years at a standstill."

This seems to answer half of your questions: there was a kingless period after the slavers decimated the island's population and Maurata died. Koreto/Korato was declared queen through the machinations of her foreigner husband; both she and her daughters died before Atamu Tekana came on the scene. Alexander Ariipaea Salmon was a foreigner who stepped into a power vaccuum and became a de facto leader - or at least he claimed so to Europeans.

For the rest, this history from the Pasifika Media Association http://pacificmedia.org/pasifika-regions/rapa-nui says:

* "Ariki Atamu Tekena was the acting king when the Chilean Navy arrived on the island (his name, written as ‘Atamu Ari’ is the first of the chiefs that is listed on the Treaty)."

Their source is the master's thesis: Vaai Hanga Kainga – Giving Care to the Motherland: conflicting narratives of Rapanui by Santi Hito http://researcharchive.vuw.ac.nz/bitstream/handle/10063/1504/thesis.pdf?sequence=1

According to this, Atamu Tekana was the person that signed the 1888 treaty with the Chileans. I couldn't find anything on his authority for doing so or his relation to Salmon (though you might read the thesis; I didn't).

I also couldn't find anything on Tepito other than this note that the word is part of a second name for the island. http://books.google.com/books?id=g9ZogGs_fz8C&pg=PA251&lpg=PA251&dq=%2BTepito+rapanui

184.147.123.69 (talk) 14:45, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

"People are much less accurate at throwing darts at pictures of JFK than at pictures of Hitler"

From [15], a claim that subconscious opinion of the target influences how well you can throw a dart at a picture. Truth ... or bull? Wnt (talk) 04:18, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Google Scholaring "throwing darts at pictures of JFK" got me this study [16] from the University of Pennsylvania. It's published in a reputable journal with 335 citations, so it's safe to say it's scientifically rigorous. The results you're looking for are on page 6 of the PDF. 173.32.168.59 (talk) 04:31, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Does Law of Similarity has something to do with it? The link posted above has some information on this topic on p.709. Also see this. --SupernovaExplosion ^Talk 04:34, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

And this. --SupernovaExplosion ^Talk 04:34, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Flags of Trans-Mississippi

Can you confirm that the hand-made images on this it.wiki article are truthful drawings of the historical flags of the Trans-Mississippi Department? Thanks in advance. --151.75.101.147 (talk) 06:40, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

They mainly seem to be banners of individual military units... AnonMoos (talk) 08:00, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Online photography contest

Is there any site which holds online contest for photographers? A site where people can submit there photographs as part of a competition? --SupernovaExplosion ^Talk 09:40, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Hundreds. Maybe thousands. Start here: http://ngm.nationalgeographic.com/your-shot/your-shot and here http://www.google.com/#hl=en&sclient=psy-ab&q=online+photography+contest 184.147.123.69 (talk) 12:46, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Why isn't Kosovo a UN member/observer?

Why isn't Kosovo a member or observer of the UN? Yes I know that more than 50% of the world doesn't recognize it (In ASEAN, currently only Malaysia and Brunei recognizes it). I am also aware that there are other similar limited recognition states (such as Taiwan) that are not UN members (although Palestine's government is a UN observer). The thing is, the UN administered the region for almost ten years. Almost all other countries did not even go through that stage, but they are in the United Nations. There were already previous members when they were still not independent (Ukraine and Belarus were founding members of the UN while they were still part of the Soviet Union). If most UN countries don't recognize it, can't they at least grant it observer status? Palestine is also a partially-recognized state, recognized by only slightly more than half of the world's countries, but its government is a UN permanent observer (although they controversially applied for full membership some months ago as Palestine, I don't know if they were rejected or not). There is even a non-country that is a permanent observer in the UN. Why can't Kosovo be granted at least observer status? Does it have to do with Serbia, similar to how Taiwan can't join the UN because of China? Narutolovehinata5 ^tccsdnew 12:22, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Our article on International recognition of Kosovo has a wealth of information. The passage most applicable to your question seems to be that "It is expected that Russia's refusal to recognise Kosovo will prevent Kosovo from attaining a seat at the UN, as Russia is one of the five permanent members of the Security Council from which Kosovo will need unanimous approval." This is apparently sourced from this article by Reuters, although I can't personally find the part of the article that supports it. It's worth also pointing out that the situation concerning Belarus and the Ukraine being founder members of the UN was a special case, born of Russia's opposition to the membership of India and the Philippines, which were (at the time) effectively colonies of the UK and the USA respectively. This is dealt with in the article Soviet Union and the United Nations. - Cucumber Mike (talk) 14:03, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Historically, Russia has seen itself as the protector of Southern Slav states such as Serbia and Bulgaria, and thus would oppose Kosovo independence from Serbia. This goes back to the Russian-led Pan-Slavism movement that started in the 19th century and which, in many ways, was one of the tinders that ignited World War I. --Jayron32 17:43, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Note however that may be referring to full membership while the op referred to observer status. Our United Nations General Assembly observers suggests only a United Nations General Assembly resolution is required, in which case the Security Council may not be involved and Russia and China's veto power may not be relevant. In any case, a 2/3 majority will I presume be needed for recognition as an observer, and since Kosovo is only recognised by 90 out of 193 (i.e. not even 50%) of UN member states, it's a moot point. Nil Einne (talk) 19:19, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Taian teahouse page help

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Taian — Preceding unsigned comment added by 66.240.10.170 (talk) 19:16, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

The page for the Taian (Japanese teahouse) redirects to the search page for the word "taian." Please Fix — Preceding unsigned comment added by 66.240.10.170 (talk) 19:14, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

The articles about Japanese tea houses Ochaya and Chashitsu don't contain the name "Taian". What evidence is there that this term is used to describe these? -- Finlay McWalterჷTalk 19:24, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Ah, I see there is a specific building (which is written as Tai-an in that article) mentioned briefly in Chashitsu. Is there enough to say about that building to warrant an article of its own? Right now I don't see a source in Chashitsu that covers it. -- Finlay McWalterჷTalk 19:30, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

I've deleted the link from the disambiguation (dab) page, since it is inappropriate to link to this kind of circular redirect. There is no article on this topic. If someone creates an article, they can link it to the dab page. Marco polo (talk) 19:39, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Incidentally, this room is mentioned as "Taian" (without a hyphen, which I believe is the standard transliteration from Japanese), in Sen no Rikyū. In that article, the name of the room links to the dab page. I don't know whether such links conform to best practice on Wikipedia. I wouldn't create such a link. There is an actual article on this tea room in the Japanese Wikipedia, but Japanese seems to be the only language with an article on the room. Marco polo (talk) 19:46, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

The teahouse is also mentioned in the List of National Treasures of Japan (residences). Oda Mari (talk) 07:13, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

St. Vincent de Paul Church in Davenport California

Hello, I have a simple question. Which North Coast Swiss immigrant is credited with being the driving force behind the construction of St. Vincent de Paul Church in Davenport California? Thank you — Preceding unsigned comment added by 99.101.140.201 (talk) 21:36, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

I'm trying to make sense of the phrase "North Coast Swiss immigrant", and failing. North Coast of where?" --ColinFine (talk) 22:10, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

Technically, Switzerland does have a North Coast, insofar as there is a body of water lying on at least part of the northern limit of Switzerland. Though I suspect that the OP is refering to an immigrant to the North Coast region of California from some undisclosed place in Switzerland. The context comes from Davenport, California, which while not actually in the North Coast region, is still in California. I suspect that a Swiss immigrant to the North Coast of California later moved to Davenport and helped found that church. I don't have an answer, except to clarify how I read the question. --Jayron32 22:59, 1 May 2012 (UTC)

May 2

Exact date of death for writer Doris Gates?

I've started an article about the Newbery winning children's writer Doris Gates. I know that she died in 1987 in Carmel, CA. But I can't find her exact date of death. I know she was married, but then divorced, and I can't find her husband's name, either, or names of any children. But she seems to have continued to use her maiden name. I hate to leave such obvious information out, but I've hit a wall. Can anyone help me out? (She was born in Mountain View on 11/26/1901, if that helps.) Thanks. Tlqk56 (talk) 00:54, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

I checked ancestry.com, which is a pay site, but this might help: 2 sources (Social Security Death Index and California Death Index) state that she was born Nov 26, 1901; and died Sep 3, 1987, at Monterrey, CA. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 01:39, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Monterrey is in Mexico, I think. California has a city called Monterey. Nice place. Never been to the one in Mexico; couldn't say. --Trovatore (talk) 09:02, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Qualquiera. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 11:56, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Thank you. I'll follow up on that and see what comes up. I appreciate it. Tlqk56 (talk) 04:59, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Have any countries succeeded at reducing censoring of media?

Have any countries succeeded at reducing the censoring of the media without major government change? I'd especially be interested in examples in the Internet age. If not, keep it relatively modern if possible (TVs are a must).--128.54.193.69 (talk) 02:10, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Define censorship. 1000 Word limit. Due Thursday. Go. Shadowjams (talk) 08:45, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

The USA, UK, and probably other nations have dramatically reduced censorship since the 1950s. In the UK, theatre was censored until 1968 (Lord_Chamberlain#Theatre_censorship). Nudity, sexual content, and bad language have also become more acceptable - see for example Seven dirty words (much of which is recent) and Motion Picture Production Code for the USA, and for the UK the post-1999 British Board of Film Classification#Relaxation. --Colapeninsula (talk) 08:47, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Not sure what you mean by "without government change". During Glasnost, the government of the USSR didn't change, but its style did. --Dweller (talk) 08:51, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

See also the article Freedom of speech and country specific articles: Censorship in France (in the 50s and 60s lots of censorship re the Algerian war), Censorship in the United Kingdom (which describes topics like the now-abolished ban on "apologists" for terrorism speaking on TV), Censorship in the United States, etc. I suspect, as Shadowjams says, the OP is going to have to be more specific. --Colapeninsula (talk) 08:54, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Im guessing here, but it seems Myanmars opening up has done so. Likewise at very points of israel's history to the current liberal regime there must have been a no-go for government regardless of disagreement. Libya of course had wholescale change as did Tunisia. Venezuela has total press freedom. I would be inclined to add Chile, Greece, South Korea, Portugal, Spain but tey had massive governmental change. As was South Africa. Zimbabwe's gone the opposite direction in the last decade...in some aspect Sudan's liberalised (but that was mainy ofor the south sudan referendum (stuff i read)). Lanka is dubious here. I imagine Ukraine's political dynamics probably change based on whos premiser.Lihaas (talk) 11:58, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

The OP might be interested in this link on censorship in Australia, but there was a new government in place, with a somewhat liberal agenda. That might or might not qualify as major government change, but I suspect the OP was thinking about revolutionary change. If the OP does wish to clarify a little, I'd be curious to know whether "media" refers to "news media", or "mass media", since the first would rule out home videos. IBE (talk) 13:40, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

The word "succeeded" seems out of place here, implying that this was their goal. I'd say most governments would like to maintain censorship, but the explosion in the number of media channels, especially on the Internet, has made this impossible. Thus, they've retreated to only trying to censor the most extreme material, like child pornography. StuRat (talk) 17:40, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Is it possible for an author to hide his writer's voice?

I would like to know whether or not it is possible for an author to hide his writer's voice intentionally, so that the new voice is unrecognizable. Wikipedia has a short article about an author's voice: "is the literary term used to describe the individual writing style of an author. Voice was generally considered to be a combination of a writer's use of syntax, diction, punctuation, character development, dialogue, etc., within a given body of text (or across several works). Voice can be thought of in terms of the uniqueness of a vocal voice machine. As a trumpet has a different voice than a tuba or a violin has a different voice than a cello, so the words of one author have a different sound than the words of another. One author may have a voice that is light and fast paced while another may have a dark voice. In creative writing, students are often encouraged to experiment with different literary styles and techniques in order to help them better develop their 'voice'. This aspect varies with the individual author, but, particularly in American culture, having this asset is considered positive and beneficial to both the writer and his or her audience." A person's voice can be used to attribute an anonymous work to an author, but is it possible for the author to produce a work under a completely different pseudonym and writing style -- one that is irrecognizable? Does personality and personal interests have an affect on writing style? What does it take to produce an unidentifiable anonymous work?

Similarly, how do historians tell the difference between the Bernoulli brothers Jacob and Johann and who contributed what? Do historians examine the brothers' normal writing styles or mathematical contributions? 140.254.227.58 (talk) 14:22, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Writer's voice is the article referenced above. XPPaul (talk) 15:20, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

I'm not sure if "hide" is the best word, as they certainly must have "syntax, diction, punctuation, character development, dialogue, etc.". Perhaps "change" would be a better term. And many writers have written books for both adults and children, or factual and fiction books, or prose and poetry, each of which require different voices. In short, "know your audience and adjust your writer's voice accordingly". StuRat (talk) 17:33, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Yes. Many literary novelists also write crime novels. Ian Fleming died half way through writing The Man with the Golden Gun and Kingsley Amis was so good at mimicking Fleming's style (and was a good friend of his) and finished the novel off for him, and then went on to write a Bond novel of his own. Also worth seeing Doris Lessing attempting to publish novels as Jane Somers. Authors quite frequently change their style. I knew someone who funded his PHd by writing steamy Mills and Boon novels. The Man who was Wanted, wrongly attributed to Conan Doyle for years, is another example. Anthony J Pintglass (talk) 17:41, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Speaking of anonymity, is the Internet truly anonymous? Or can one's writing style, personality, and interests readily give away a person's identity? 140.254.121.39 (talk) 18:55, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Well, if you return to the same place online pretending to be someone new, they might well suspect you are the same person. We get that with vandals here. However, if you go to a different, unrelated website, you are unlikely to be recognized there. As for computer programs recognizing writing style among the billions of communications each day, that would be quite difficult. StuRat (talk) 19:01, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Why didn't Richard Kuklinski get the death penalty?

Others got it for much, much less. XPPaul (talk) 14:51, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

According to the article, he was convicted in New Jersey, and NJ does not have the dealth penalty. Capital_punishment_in_the_United_States. RudolfRed (talk) 15:39, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

But NJ abolished the death penalty 2007, after Kuklinski's sentencing...

Los Angeles of Toronto

Somebody told me that City of York is called "Los Angeles of Toronto". Is this true? He said it is because of blacks, white and latino population. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 70.53.228.51 (talk) 15:09, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

I have never heard it. And that would be a strange reason, because Los Angeles is not known here for its ethnic makeup but is thought of as a celebrity/film city. All of Toronto is multicultural. 184.147.132.206 (talk) 20:10, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Sega and Toronto Blur Jays font

Did Sega borrowed the font from the Toronto Blue Jays? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 65.92.153.4 (talk) 19:20, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

Somoans/Pacific Islanders

I was just watching Roots and observing what part must be fictionalised and what could have been "real". One part in the beginning of the first episode that seems fictionalised (coupled with the clear americanisation of the cast said to be Gambian (which they say is Islamic, but the tribal girls are topless)) was the massively built instructor at the "coming of age" event. Then I thought prior to the more "westernised" era of gyms and proteins/steroids how did people get so big in terms of muscles? it seems many dint, HOWEVER Samoans and other Pacific Islanders largely cut off from the modernity of gyms and supplements are quite huge in built (rugby players from decades ago stand out, and theyre still the stronger rugby countries today in contrast to the population, which is remarkable). So my question is what is it in their natural diet that feeds the muscles? Fish proteins are really known for being that musculuar building as beef, etc...though i could well be wrogn. But even nativ americans who had Bison (of which American bison are bigger than European bison per our page), etc werent as big. Or is there some sort of natural workout (swimming to catch fish, running on the beaches/hunting, etc?) that built such power. (come to think about it, ive noticed this eons ago just never really though about it).

Also our articles of ethnicities dont mention diets at all...which they sohould. They only talk of language, demographics (religion), etc.Lihaas (talk) 19:21, 2 May 2012 (UTC)

humanities academic journal search online

When I am looking for academic papers in medical journals I use PubMed. Is there something similar (online) for papers in the humanities topics? (Other than Google Scholar which is horrible to use). Thanks. 184.147.132.206 (talk) 20:08, 2 May 2012 (UTC)